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Total 1135 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Question 2

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

Question 3

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 4

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

Question 5

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Question 6

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Question 7

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

Question 8

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Question 9

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Question 10

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 11

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 12

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

Question 13

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 14

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Question 15

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Question 16

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Question 17

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Question 18

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Question 19

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Question 20

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Question 21

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Question 22

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

Question 23

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Question 24

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

Question 25

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 26

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Question 27

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Question 28

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Question 29

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 30

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Question 31

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 32

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Question 33

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

Question 34

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Question 35

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Question 36

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question 37

Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Project documents updates

Question 38

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

Question 39

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Question 40

When should quality planning be performed?

Options:

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

Question 41

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Question 42

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 43

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Question 44

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

Question 45

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 46

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Options:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Question 47

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Question 48

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Question 49

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Question 50

After winning a large government contract, a company needs to hire a portfolio manager What vital qualification should candidates possess?

Options:

A.

Ability to manage strategic goals across multiple projects

B.

Skills to manage a large project

C.

Competency to manage multiple projects that align departments

D.

Capability of managing project schedules

Question 51

What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Schedule Management

Question 52

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

Options:

A.

Incremental life cycle

B.

Predictive life cycle

C.

Iterative life cycle

D.

Adaptive life cycle

Question 53

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

Options:

Question 54

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Question 55

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

Options:

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Question 56

If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefits is that:

Options:

A.

all stakeholders have access to the same information.

B.

the project team is able to understand the project status.

C.

project stakeholders have a clear picture of the project.

D.

new knowledge is added to organizational process assets.

Question 57

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan

Question 58

Which is a major component of an agreement?

Options:

A.

Change request handling

B.

Risk register templates

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Procurement management plan

Question 59

Which scenario is most desirable during the execution phase of a project?

Options:

A.

Apply and use quality controls to ensure expectations are met throughout the project

B.

Communicate quality failures to the sponsor for feedback

C.

Conduct all quality inspections at the end of the project

D.

Only correct quality issues found if it will keep you within the budget

Question 60

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

Question 61

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Time and material (T&M)

Question 62

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

Options:

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

Question 63

Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Increased support and minimized resistance from stakeholders

B.

Increased performance of the project team

C.

Maintenance of stakeholder satisfaction because costs and scope are under control

D.

Updated project documents, as requested by stakeholders

Question 64

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

Options:

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

Question 65

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval

Options:

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 66

When paying a consultation fee to a technical expert, what type of contract is often used'?

Options:

A.

Time and materials (T&M)

B.

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 67

Which roles does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

Question 68

Which behavior is a management trait?

Options:

A.

Asking what and why

B.

Challenging the status quo

C.

Innovating

D.

Relying on control

Question 69

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes'?

Options:

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

Question 70

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

Question 71

A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool's functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Control Scope

Question 72

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

Question 73

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

Question 74

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?

Options:

A.

The task will be completed on time.

B.

The task will not be completed on time.

C.

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

Question 75

Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.

Options:

Question 76

Which of the following are components of the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Scope management plan, scope baseline, risk management plan, and configuration managemet plan

B.

Scope management plan, issue log, risk register and project schedule network diagram

C.

Scope management plan, schedule baseline, milestone list, and assumption log

D.

Scope management plan, cost estimates, duration estimates, and resource calenders

Question 77

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

Options:

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

Question 78

What do top project managers do to maximize their sphere of influence within a project team?

Options:

A.

Consider management standards, economic factors, and sustainability strategies

B.

Contribute knowledge and expertise to others within the profession

C.

C Address political and strategic issues that impact the project's viability or quality

D.

D Demonstrate superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude

Question 79

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

Question 80

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

Options:

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Question 81

In what type of organizational structure does a project manager develop their role and work with a team assigned by job function?

Options:

A.

Matrix - strong

B.

Matrix - balanced

C.

Virtual

D.

Functional

Question 82

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

Question 83

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

Question 84

A company has implemented an adaptive project management framework for a new project. When planning for an iteration, how should risks be addressed? Choose two.

Options:

A.

Risks should be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

B.

Risks should be tailored for each iteration.

C.

Risks should be identified, analyzed, and managed during each iteration.

D.

Risks should be documented prior to each iteration.

E.

Risks should be reviewed only once during each iteration.

Question 85

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

Question 86

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

Options:

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

Question 87

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

Options:

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Question 88

When developing a schedule which tools and techniques should a project manager use?

Options:

A.

Schedule Networfc Analysis and Critical Path Method

B.

Activity I ist and Fxpert Judgement

C.

Milestone Iist and Risk Register

D.

Basis ot estimates and Rolling Wave Planning

Question 89

Why is required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

Question 90

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

Question 91

Which of the following set of items belongs to the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes and meeting management

B.

Project schedule and glossary of common terminology

C.

Escalation processes and stakeholder communication requirements

D.

Interactive communication model and information to be communicated

Question 92

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

Options:

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

Question 93

What is the process of ensuring that project resources are assigned and available?

Options:

A.

Control Procurements

B.

Acquire Resources

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Procurement Management

Question 94

Which of the following is the key construction to controlling the costs and achieving the schedule in projects with high variability?

Options:

A.

Learn methods

B.

collaborative teams

C.

Generalizing specialists

D.

Knowledge sharing

Question 95

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

Options:

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Question 96

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

Question 97

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 98

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

Question 99

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Question 100

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Question 101

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 102

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 103

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 104

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Question 105

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Question 106

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Question 107

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Question 108

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Question 109

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Question 110

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Question 111

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 112

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 113

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Question 114

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Question 115

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Question 116

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

Question 117

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

Question 118

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Question 119

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 120

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Question 121

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 122

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Question 123

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Question 124

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Question 125

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Question 126

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

Options:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Question 127

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

Question 128

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Question 129

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 130

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 131

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Question 132

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Question 133

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

Question 134

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

Question 135

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

Question 136

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Question 137

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Question 138

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

Question 139

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Question 140

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Question 141

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

Question 142

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question 143

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Question 144

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Question 145

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

Question 146

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Question 147

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Question 148

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

Question 149

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

Options:

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

Question 150

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

Question 151

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?

Options:

A.

A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.

B.

A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.

C.

A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.

D.

A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

Question 152

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

Options:

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

Question 153

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

Question 154

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

Question 155

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

Options:

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

Question 156

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

Question 157

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 158

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location.

Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?

Options:

A.

Predictive life cycle

B.

Waterfall life cycle

C.

Hybrid life cycle

D.

Product life cycle

Question 159

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

Options:

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Question 160

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

Options:

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

Question 161

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives.

Question 162

Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints for project execution and monitoring and controlling relates to which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Define Activities

Question 163

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Question 164

Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

Options:

A.

Project Schedule Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Resource Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Question 165

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

Options:

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

Question 166

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Options:

Question 167

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

Question 168

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

Options:

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

Question 169

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

Question 170

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.

Quality Management

B.

Scope Management

C.

Cost Management

D.

Integration Management

Question 171

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Question 172

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

Question 173

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

Options:

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

Question 174

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Question 175

A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables

B.

Validated deliverables

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Completed change requests

Question 176

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

Question 177

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

Question 178

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Question 179

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

Question 180

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

Question 181

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

Question 182

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

Options:

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Question 183

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Question 184

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Question 185

Which statement is related to the project manager's sphere of influence at the organizational level?

Options:

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

Question 186

A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages.

Which technique is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Data analysis

Question 187

How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?

Options:

A.

Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans

B.

Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified

C.

Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members

D.

Engage only with the project sponsors

Question 188

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.

Government standards

B.

Organizational culture

C.

Employee capabilities

D.

Organizational knowledge bases

Question 189

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

Options:

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

Question 190

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

Question 191

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Question 192

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

Options:

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

Question 193

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

Question 194

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Question 195

What tool should a project manager use to efficiently manage project resources?

Options:

A.

List of project resources

B.

Resource breakdown structure

C.

Resources detailed in the project scope

D.

Resource requirements

Question 196

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

Options:

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

Question 197

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Options:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

Question 198

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Question 199

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 200

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

Question 201

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Question 202

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Options:

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

Question 203

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question 204

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Question 205

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Question 206

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Question 207

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

Options:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

Question 208

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Question 209

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Options:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Question 210

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Question 211

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Question 212

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Question 213

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Question 214

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 215

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Question 216

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

Question 217

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Question 218

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Question 219

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question 220

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Question 221

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Question 222

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Question 223

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Question 224

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

Question 225

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Question 226

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Question 227

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Question 228

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Question 229

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

Question 230

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Question 231

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

Options:

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

Question 232

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question 233

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Question 234

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Question 235

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Question 236

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Question 237

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Question 238

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Question 239

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Question 240

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 241

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

Question 242

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Question 243

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Question 244

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Question 245

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

Question 246

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Question 247

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

Options:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Question 248

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

Question 249

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Question 250

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Question 251

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Question 252

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

Question 253

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

Options:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Question 254

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

Question 255

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Question 256

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question 257

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

Options:

A.

Accuracy

B.

Precision

C.

Grade

D.

Quality

Question 258

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 259

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

Question 260

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Options:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

Question 261

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Question 262

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

Options:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

Question 263

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Question 264

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Question 265

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Question 266

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

Question 267

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Question 268

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Question 269

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Question 270

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Question 271

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Question 272

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

Question 273

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Question 274

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 275

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Question 276

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Question 277

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Question 278

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Question 279

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Question 280

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

Question 281

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 282

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Question 283

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Question 284

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Question 285

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question 286

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Question 287

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question 288

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Question 289

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

Question 290

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

Question 291

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

Question 292

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Question 293

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Question 294

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

Question 295

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Question 296

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Question 297

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Question 298

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Question 299

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 300

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 301

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Question 302

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Question 303

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Question 304

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question 305

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Question 306

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Question 307

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Question 308

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

Question 309

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 310

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Question 311

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Question 312

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Question 313

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

Question 314

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Question 315

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Question 316

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Question 317

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Question 318

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Question 319

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Question 320

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Question 321

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Question 322

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Question 323

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Question 324

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Question 325

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

Question 326

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Question 327

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question 328

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Question 329

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Question 330

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Question 331

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Question 332

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Question 333

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Question 334

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Question 335

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 336

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Question 337

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Question 338

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Question 339

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Question 340

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Exam Detail
Vendor: PMI
Certification: CAPM
Exam Code: CAPM
Last Update: Dec 25, 2024
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