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Total 918 questions

Project Management Professional v5 Questions and Answers

Question 1

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

Verify Scope.

C.

Collect Requirements.

D.

Define Scope.

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Question 2

Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

Question 3

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Question 4

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Question 5

A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Request seller responses

C.

Select sellers

D.

Plan purchase and acquisition

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of push communication?

Options:

A.

Intranet sites

B.

Video conferencing

C.

Knowledge repositories

D.

Press releases

Question 7

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Question 8

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Question 9

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

Question 10

What’s budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring & Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Question 11

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

Question 12

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Question 13

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Question 14

Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?

Options:

A.

Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-D

B.

Begin-A-B-C-D-E-End

C.

Begin-A-B-D-E-End A-C-D

D.

Begin-A-C-D-E-End-B-C

Question 15

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Change requests

D.

Deliverables

Question 16

A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?

Options:

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Schedule crashing

D.

Resource leveling

Question 17

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Question 18

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

Question 19

Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

Question 20

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Question 21

Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk management

D.

Risk attitude

Question 22

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Question 23

Which of the following makes changes to formally control documentation to reflect modified or additional ideas or content?

Options:

A.

Defect repair

B.

Updates

C.

Corrective action

D.

Performance reports

Question 24

Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

Options:

A.

Portfolio manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Project manager

D.

Project management office

Question 25

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

Question 26

Team performance assessments is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Manage Project Team

Question 27

A process is defined as:

Options:

A.

A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.

B.

A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.

C.

The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.

D.

A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.

Question 28

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

Question 29

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200

Options:

A.

0.67

B.

1.5

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Question 30

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

Question 31

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Question 32

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Question 33

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Question 34

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Question 35

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

Question 36

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 37

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

Options:

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

Question 38

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

Question 39

The chart below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Question 40

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Question 41

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 42

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

Question 43

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Question 44

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Question 45

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

Options:

A.

Analogous Estimating

B.

Expert Judgment

C.

Optimistic Estimates

D.

Reserve Analysis

Question 46

Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

Options:

A.

Budget forecast

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Activity cost estimate

D.

Three-point estimate

Question 47

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

Options:

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question 48

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Question 49

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Question 50

An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?

Options:

A.

Phase work

B.

Project work

C.

Lifecycle work

D.

Operations work

Question 51

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Question 52

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

Question 53

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

Question 54

A tool or technique used during the Administer Procurements process is:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Bidder conference.

C.

Procurement negotiation.

D.

Performance reporting.

Question 55

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Question 56

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Question 57

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Question 58

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Question 59

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Question 60

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Question 61

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Question 62

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Question 63

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Question 64

When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

Options:

A.

When the project is initiated

B.

As an output of the scope verification process

C.

When the project is closing

D.

In the contract closure process

Question 65

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

Question 66

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Question 67

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Question 68

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Question 69

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Question 70

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Question 71

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Question 72

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Question 73

Which of the following is a measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress made on the project?

Options:

A.

Schedule performance index (SPI)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Cost variance (CV)

D.

Planned value (PV)

Question 74

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 75

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Question 76

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Question 77

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Question 78

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

Question 79

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Question 80

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Question 81

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

Question 82

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

Question 83

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question 84

Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Close Procurements

B.

Administer Procurements

C.

Plan Procurements

D.

Conduct Procurements

Question 85

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Question 86

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Question 87

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Question 88

Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?

Options:

A.

Control accounts

B.

Milestones

C.

Management points

D.

Measurement points

Question 89

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

Question 90

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Question 91

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Question 92

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Question 93

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Question 94

Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Cost Management

Question 95

During what process is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Question 96

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Question 97

The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:

Options:

A.

Formal plans and procedures

B.

Lessons learned and historical information

C.

Guidelines and knowledge bases

D.

Stakeholder positions and their influence

Question 98

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Question 99

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Question 100

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Question 101

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Question 102

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Question 103

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

Options:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Question 104

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Plan

B.

Project Schedule Network

C.

Project Management Software

D.

Project Scope Management Plan

Question 105

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

Question 106

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Question 107

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Question 108

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Question 109

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

Question 110

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

Question 111

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Question 112

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

Question 113

Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:

Options:

A.

Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

B.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

C.

Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder management strategy.

D.

Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment, and organizational process assets.

Question 114

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Question 115

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Question 116

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

Question 117

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

Question 118

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Question 119

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

Options:

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Question 120

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

Question 121

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

Options:

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Question 122

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Question 123

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Question 124

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 125

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

Question 126

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Question 127

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 128

What are the components of the “triple constraint”?

Options:

A.

Scope, time, requirements

B.

Resources, time, cost

C.

Scope, management, cost

D.

Scope, time, cost

Question 129

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Question 130

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Question 131

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

Options:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Question 132

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Question 133

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

Question 134

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Options:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Question 135

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

Question 136

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Question 137

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Total 918 questions