Free and Premium CompTIA SK0-005 Dumps Questions Answers

RAID 10 is the best option to deploy a database server that provides the highest performance with fault tolerance. RAID 10 is a type of RAID level that combines RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 0 (striping) to create an array of mirrored stripes. RAID 10 offers high performance by distributing data across multiple disks in parallel (striping), which improves read/write speed and I/O operations. RAID 10 also offers fault tolerance by duplicating data across two or more disks in each stripe (mirroring), which provides redundancy and data protection in case of disk failure. RAID 10 requires at least four disks to implement and has a high storage overhead, as half of the disk space is used for mirroring. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives]

Driver updates should be applied to the new components that have been added to a mission-critical server, as part of the server hardening requirements. Drivers are software programs that enable the communication and functionality of hardware devices, such as network cards, storage controllers, or graphics cards. Updating drivers can improve the performance, compatibility, and stability of the new components with the server operating system and applications. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.

The most likely reason for this result is that there is a manual entry in the hosts file that maps the FQDN to an incorrect IP address (104.18.17.32). The hosts file is a text file that contains mappings of hostnames or domain names to IP addresses, which are used by the operating system to resolve names before querying DNS servers on the network or internet. The hosts file can be used to override DNS settings or block access to certain websites by redirecting them to different IP addresses, such as localhost (127.O.O.l) or invalid addresses (O.O.O.O). If there is a manual entry in the hosts file that conflicts with DNS records, it can cause name resolution errors or connectivity issues. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.l: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

 Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2

Application-Consistent Backups3

Load balancing is a method used to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. In this scenario, the administrator is tasked with ensuring that all four servers can serve the same website, which is a typical use case for load balancing.

Load balancing (Answer A): Distributes web traffic across multiple servers to ensure availability and reliability.

Direct access (Option B): Refers to client devices connecting directly to a network resource, unrelated to the described scenario.

Overprovisioning (Option C): Refers to allocating more resources than are currently needed, not relevant to load distribution.

Network teaming (Option D): Involves combining multiple network interfaces for redundancy or increased throughput but doesn't address server distribution.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Explain networking concepts for server environments.

Camouflage is an architectural reinforcement that is used to attempt to conceal the exterior of an organization. Camouflage is a technique of blending in with the surroundings or disguising the appearance of a building or facility to make it less noticeable or identifiable. Camouflage can reduce the visibility and attractiveness of a target for potential attackers or intruders. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, apply physical security methods to a server.

Drive encryption is a form of data-at-rest encryption that encrypts the entire hard drive or solid state drive. This means that all the data on the drive, including the operating system, applications, and files, are protected from unauthorized access. Drive encryption is usually implemented at the hardware or firmware level, and requires a password, PIN, or biometric authentication to unlock the drive. Drive encryption is the most comprehensive and secure way to achieve data-at-rest encryption, as it prevents anyone from accessing the data without the proper credentials, even if they physically remove the drive from the server.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 9: Security, page 367.

A sniffer (also known as a packet analyzer) is a tool that captures and inspects data packets traveling across the network. In this case, using a sniffer would help identify suspicious or malicious redirection of traffic, possibly caused by a man-in-the-middle attack, DNS hijacking, or malware.

Sniffer (Answer D): This tool will allow the senior administrator to inspect the network traffic and identify if and how requests to the anti-malware website are being intercepted or redirected.

Data loss prevention (Option A): DLP tools focus on preventing data leakage rather than analyzing traffic redirection.

File integrity monitor (Option B): This checks for unauthorized changes to files, which may not directly address network traffic redirection.

Port scanner (Option C): A port scanner would only identify open ports on devices, which is unrelated to the redirection issue.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is addressed under SK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain server roles and their purposes.

User activity reports were used to identify the security breach in the human resources department. User activity reports are records of the actions and events performed by users on a system or network, such as login/logout times, files accessed or modified, commands executed, or websites visited. User activity reports can help monitor and audit user behavior, detect and investigate security incidents, and enforce policies and compliance. User activity reports can be generated by various tools, such as log management software, security information and event management (SIEM) systems, or user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) solutions. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, apply logical access control methods.

The virtual server’s time is incorrect despite proper configuration of internal time servers.

Resolution: The engineer should manually correct the time (Option D):

If the internal time servers are configured correctly, manual adjustment is necessary.

Checking firewall rules would help identify NTP (Network Time Protocol) issues.

Replacing the CMOS battery is unlikely to be the cause of incorrect time.

A loop is a programming construct used to repeat a block of code multiple times. In this case, if a function needs to run ten times, a loop (such as a for loop or while loop) would be the appropriate choice.

Loop (Answer A): This allows the function to be executed repeatedly without writing redundant code.

Variable (Option B): A variable is used to store data, but it doesn’t handle repetition.

Comparator (Option C): Comparators are used to compare values, not for repeating code.

Conditional (Option D): Conditionals (if, else) are used for decision-making, not repeating actions multiple times.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand basic scripting and automation concepts.

If the network cable is functioning but there is no network connectivity, the next step would be to check the IPv4 options. This includes verifying that the server has a correct IP address, subnet mask, and gateway configuration.

IPv4 options (Answer B): Incorrect IP configuration is a common reason for network connectivity issues.

NIC firmware (Option A): Firmware issues are less likely if the NIC is detecting the cable and appears operational.

DHCP options (Option C): DHCP could be checked if automatic IP assignment is being used, but verifying IPv4 options manually is the first step.

Firewall options (Option D): Firewalls can block connectivity but should be checked after confirming IP settings.

DNS settings (Option E): DNS issues usually affect domain name resolution, not basic network connectivity.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 3.1: Install and configure server components.

Overprovisioning is a situation where the allocated resources for a virtual machine exceed the available resources of the physical host. In this case, the storage allocated for Server 1 and Server 2 on VM01 is 8TB and 10TB respectively, which adds up to 18TB. However, the storage available on the VM01 host is only 16TB, which means there is a 2TB deficit. This can cause performance issues and errors for the virtual machines.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8

Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management, Module 2, Lesson 5

Scenario: Migrating a stand-alone application storing PII to the cloud.

Data to Encrypt: Data at rest (Option B) should be encrypted:

Data in transit (Option A) and backups (Option C) are also important but not the primary concern here.

Data archives (Option D) may or may not contain sensitive data.

A rescan on the server’s RAID controller is a possible troubleshooting step to detect the existing RAID configurations on the connected storage arrays. A firmware upgrade may cause the RAID controller to lose the RAID metadata or settings, and a rescan may restore them. A rescan is preferable to restoring the default RAID configuration, as the latter may erase the existing data on the arrays. Power cycling the storage arrays or booting the OS into recovery mode may not help if the RAID controller does not recognize the RAID sets.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 7: Storage, page 287.

iSCSI is a protocol that allows SCSI commands to be transmitted over IP networks, enabling remote access to storage devices. iSCSI uses IP addresses to identify and communicate with the storage array, so having multiple IP addresses for the array indicates that iSCSI is being used. eSATA, USB, and FC are other types of connections that use different protocols and connectors than iSCSI. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, install and deploy primary storage devices based on given specifications and interfaces.

A business impact analysis (BIA) is a document that outlines the potential effects of downtime on business operations. It identifies critical business functions and estimates the impact of disruption on the organization's ability to function.

Business impact analysis (Answer D): This document is specifically designed to assess the consequences of downtime and other disruptions.

Service-level agreement (Option A): Defines the expected level of service between a provider and a client but doesn't directly explain downtime consequences.

Business continuity plan (Option B): Outlines how the business will continue operating during a disruption but doesn’t focus solely on the consequences of downtime.

Disaster recovery plan (Option C): Focuses on restoring systems after a disaster but doesn’t outline the specific impact of downtime.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain disaster recovery concepts.

When configuring a server rack, it's important to consider:

A. Floor load limitations: Server racks can be extremely heavy, especially when filled with equipment like blade servers. It is crucial to ensure that the floor can handle the load to avoid structural damage or failure.

B. Rack balancing: Properly distributing the weight in a server rack is important for stability. Heavier equipment should generally be placed at the bottom to prevent the rack from becoming top-heavy and risking a tip-over.

C. Proper lifting techniques: Using correct lifting techniques when placing servers into a rack is vital to prevent personal injury.

Link aggregation is the best option to implement on the new server to ensure the least amount of network downtime but a good amount of network speed. Link aggregation is a technique of combining multiple physical network interfaces into one logical interface to increase bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing. Link aggregation can improve the performance and availability of the server by allowing it to use more than one network path for data transmission and failover in case of link failure. Link aggregation can be implemented using various protocols, such as IEEE 802.3ad (LACP), Cisco EtherChannel, or Linux bonding. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

An action that the administrator should take to harden the hardware of a new server is to set a BIOS password. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that initializes the hardware components and settings of a system before loading the operating system. BIOS password is a security feature that requires a user to enter a password before accessing or modifying the BIOS settings or booting up the system. By setting a BIOS password, the administrator can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from changing the hardware configuration or boot order of the server.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.1, Objective 5.1

The step that the server administrator should perform before resolving the issue is to determine the probable causes. This step is part of the troubleshooting process that follows a logical and systematic approach to identify and solve problems with servers and applications. The troubleshooting process consists of several steps, such as:

Identify the problem: Gather information from various sources, such as users, logs, or alerts, to understand the symptoms and scope of the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause: Analyze the information and formulate one or more possible causes of the problem based on evidence or experience.

Test the theory to determine cause: Perform tests or experiments to verify or eliminate each possible cause until the root cause is found.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Design and execute a plan to fix the problem using appropriate tools and techniques.

Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures: Confirm that the problem is resolved and that no other issues arise as a result of the solution. Implement preventive measures to avoid recurrence of the problem or improve performance.

Document findings, actions, and outcomes: Record the details of the problem, its cause, its solution, and its outcome for future reference or knowledge sharing. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Troubleshooting, Objective 6.1: Given a scenario involving server hardware issues (e.g., power supply failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.

Deduplication is a process that eliminates redundant data blocks and reduces the amount of storage space needed. Disk quotas are policies that limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a volume.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 8

Data Deduplication interoperability2

Before decommissioning and wiping a file server, it's crucial to verify the asset management documentation. This documentation provides detailed records of the server's lifecycle, including procurement, usage, maintenance, and decommissioning information. Ensuring that asset management documentation is up-to-date and accurate is essential before proceeding with the server's decommissioning to maintain proper inventory control, comply with regulatory and organizational policies, and facilitate any potential audits. While the media destruction method, recycling policy, and document retention policy are important considerations in the decommissioning process, verifying asset management documentation is the first step to ensure the server is correctly identified and accounted for in the organization's asset registry.

A warranty is a type of asset management documentation that is commonly used as a reference when processing the replacement of a faulty server component. A warranty is a guarantee from the manufacturer or vendor that covers the repair or replacement of defective parts within a specified period of time. A purchase order, a license, or a baseline document are not directly related to the replacement of a faulty server component. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 1.0: Server Architecture, Objective 1.4: Explain asset management and documentation processes.

The IP address configuration that the technician should assign to the new server so the members of the accounting group can access the server is 172.16.25.90/24 for the IP address and 172.16.25.254 for the default gateway. This configuration matches the VLAN identified in the image, which has a network address of 172.16.25.0/24 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The IP address of the server must be within the same network range as the VLAN, which is from 172.16.25.1 to 172.16.25.254, excluding the network and broadcast addresses (172.16.25.0 and 172.16.25.255). The default gateway of the server must be the same as the VLAN, which is 172.16.25.254, to allow communication with other networks or devices outside the VLAN. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, configure network settings for servers.

Link aggregation is a technique that allows multiple network interfaces to act as one logical interface, increasing the bandwidth and redundancy of the connection. This can improve the load balancing of network traffic without requiring any new hardware or software. Round robin, most recently used, and heartbeat are not load balancing methods, but rather scheduling algorithms or monitoring techniques. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, configure NIC teaming.

Load balancing is a concept that distributes the workload across multiple servers or other resources to optimize performance, availability, and scalability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the network, such as the application layer, the transport layer, or the network layer. Load balancing can use various algorithms or methods to determine how to distribute the traffic, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Networking, page 241.

Since port 3306 (MySQL) is open on the local workstation as confirmed by the Nmap scan, the next logical step is to check network firewall rules. It’s possible that the workstation’s firewall or network-level security rules are blocking outbound or inbound traffic on port 3306, which is required for database access.

Edit the network firewall rules (Answer D): Ensuring the firewall allows traffic on port 3306 is the appropriate next step, especially since other workstations are not having the same issue.

Checking the database server (Option A): This is unnecessary because other workstations can access the server, confirming the server itself is functioning correctly.

Changing the database password (Option B): This would not resolve the issue of one workstation being unable to connect while others can.

Opening port 3306 on the server (Option C): The problem isn't server-side since other machines can connect without issue.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 2.4: Troubleshoot common server problems.

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that would most likely be implemented to encrypt data in transit for remote administration. SSH provides secure communication between two devices over an unsecured network by using public-key cryptography and symmetric encryption. SSH can be used to remotely execute commands, transfer files, or tunnel other protocols. Telnet, TFTP, and rlogin are protocols that do not encrypt data in transit and are considered insecure for remote administration. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Networking, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving network security/access methods, implement an appropriate solution.

A microSD card is the best method to stage the new media for the default boot device of a remote embedded IoT server that is having a Linux OS upgrade installed. A microSD card is a small and portable storage device that can store large amounts of data. It can be easily inserted into the slot of an embedded IoT server, which is a small and low-power device that performs specific tasks and connects to other devices over a network. A microSD card can also be formatted with different file systems, such as FAT32 or ext4, which are compatible with Linux OS. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0: Networking, Objective 4.3: Given a scenario, configure servers for IoT applications.

A crash cart is the best low-cost option to connect to any server while on site in a data center with multiple server racks. A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and cables that can be plugged into any server for direct access and control. A crash cart can be used for troubleshooting, maintenance, or configuration of servers without requiring remote access or network connectivity. A crash cart is also easy to move around and store in a data center. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario involving server management issues (e.g., remote access), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.

The IP address 216.176.128.10 falls within the range of public IP addresses, which are routable over the Internet. Since the company is using a public range of IP addresses internally, this address is suitable for the scenario. In contrast, 10.3.7.27 and 192.168.7.1 are private IP addresses typically used within internal networks and not routable on the public Internet. 127.0.0.1 is known as the loopback address, used by a computer to communicate with itself and not suitable for assigning to devices within a network.

Drives, fans, and power supplies are server components that can most commonly be replaced without downtime if they are hot-swappable. Hot-swappable components can be removed and inserted while the server is running, without affecting its operation or performance. Drives store data and applications, fans cool down the server components, and power supplies provide electricity to the server. Replacing these components can prevent data loss, overheating, or power failure. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0: Hardware, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain server components.

When a virtual server crashes and presents a Purple Screen of Death (PSOD), the immediate response should be to document the incident. Collecting a screenshot of the PSOD is crucial as it contains error codes and state information that can be used for diagnosing the root cause of the crash. Noting the details, especially those that come after the line detailing the OS version, can provide specific clues to what might have caused the server to crash. This is a standard best practice before rebooting the server, as it ensures that there is a record of the event to investigate and potentially prevent future occurrences. A hard reboot should only be done after this critical information has been recorded.

Archive is a method of storing historical data that is not frequently accessed or modified. Archive can reduce the amount of data that needs to be backed up and save bandwidth and storage space. Differential is a method of backing up only the data that has changed since the last full backup. Differential can also save bandwidth and storage space, as well as speed up the backup process.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

Server Management: Server Hardware Installation and Management2, Module 2, Lesson 5

The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3

A Type 1 hypervisor (also known as a bare-metal hypervisor) is installed directly on the hardware and is designed to manage multiple virtual machines. It is the most common type of hypervisor used in virtualization environments.

Type 1 hypervisor (Answer A): This is a core technology that enables virtualization by running virtual machines directly on the physical hardware.

Bare-metal installation (Option B): Refers to installing an OS or hypervisor directly on hardware, but doesn't inherently support virtualization unless it's a hypervisor.

Server-level redundancy (Option C): This provides fault tolerance but is not related to virtualization.

Active-active load balancing (Option D): Refers to distributing workloads across multiple servers, not directly tied to virtualization.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.3: Explain virtualization concepts.

A faulty PSU needs replacement, and the management team wants a solution to prevent future downtime.

Solution: Implement redundancy (Option D):

Redundant power supplies ensure that if one fails, the other takes over seamlessly.

Separate circuits, load balancing, and server monitoring are important but do not directly prevent PSU failures.

The server is shutting down after being powered on, which could indicate overheating. This is a common issue when fans fail, causing the CPU or other components to overheat and forcing the system to shut down to protect itself from damage.

Check for fan failure (Answer B): Ensuring the server’s cooling system is functioning properly is crucial. Overheating due to a fan failure can cause the system to shut down automatically.

Resetting memory modules (Option A): While memory issues can cause system instability, they generally do not lead to immediate shutdowns as described.

Changing the VM password (Option C): This is unrelated to the shutdown issue.

Setting credentials for the remote console (Option D): This is irrelevant to the described problem of server shutdown.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 3.3: Diagnose hardware and software issues.

A hot site with private cloud backup is the most suitable for environments that require continuous access to critical data, like student data containing PII. A hot site is fully operational and ready to take over immediately in case of a disaster. Using a private cloud provides more control and security, which is important when handling sensitive data like PII.

Hot site with private cloud backup (Answer D): This ensures minimal downtime and robust security, which is critical for handling PII.

Warm site (Options A & B): A warm site has some infrastructure ready but requires some setup before becoming operational, which introduces some delay.

Cold site (Option C): A cold site has the least preparation and requires significant time to become operational, which would not meet the requirement for constant availability.

CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is addressed in SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize disaster recovery methods and concepts.

Scope-based authentication is a method of restricting access to resources based on the location, network, or device of the user. It can be used to prevent unauthorized access from outside the organization’s network or from untrusted devices. In this case, the user can connect to the database server from the home office, which is likely within the scope of the authentication policy, but not from the hotel room, which is outside the scope.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 15

CompTIA Server+: Authentication & Authorization2

A warm site is a backup site that has some of the necessary hardware, software, and network resources to resume operations, but not all of them. A warm site requires some time and effort to become fully operational. A warm site is different from a cold site, which has minimal or no resources, and a hot site, which has all the resources and is ready to take over immediately.

References: CompTIA Server+ Study Guide, Chapter 10: Disaster Recovery, page 403.

The most likely issue that prevents the newly added server from seeing any of the LUNs on the SAN is that a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode. A single-mode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to propagate through it. A single-mode fiber cable can transmit data over long distances at high speeds, but it requires more expensive transceivers and connectors than multimode fiber cables. A multimode fiber cable is a type of optical fiber cable that has a larger core diameter and allows multiple modes of light to propagate through it. A multimode fiber cable can transmit data over short distances at lower speeds than single-mode fiber cables, but it is more compatible and cost-effective than single-mode fiber cables. If a single-mode fiber cable is used in place of multimode, it can cause signal loss, attenuation, or mismatch between the devices. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0: Storage, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, compare and contrast various storage technologies.

After removing the virus from the server, the administrator should perform the following actions to mitigate the issue from reoccurring and to maintain high availability:

Run a vulnerability scanner on the server to identify any other potential weaknesses or exposures that could be exploited by attackers.

Patch the vulnerability that allowed the virus to infect the server in the first place, using the latest updates from the database software vendor or a trusted source.

Update the antivirus software on the server to ensure it has the most recent virus definitions and can detect and prevent future infections. The other options are either unnecessary or counterproductive for this scenario. Repartitioning the hard drive, reformatting the OS, removing the database software, or air gapping the server from the network would cause downtime and data loss, while enabling a host firewall would not prevent a virus infection from within the network. References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.0: Security, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario involving a security threat/vulnerability/risk, implement appropriate mitigation techniques.

 Application consistent backup is a method of backing up data that ensures the integrity and consistency of the application state. It involves notifying the application to flush its data from memory to disk and quiescing any write operations before taking a snapshot of the data. If the databases were not backed up to be application consistent, they might contain incomplete or corrupted data that cannot be restored properly.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives1, page 12

What is Application Consistent Backup and How to Achieve It2

Application-Consistent Backups3

The technician should check the hardware compatibility list (HCL) first to see if the new NIC is supported by the server’s operating system. The HCL is a list of hardware devices that have been tested and verified to work with a specific operating system. If the NIC is not on the HCL, it means that there is no device driver available or compatible for it, and the NIC will not function properly.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.2, Objective 5.2

SSH stands for Secure Shell and it is a network protocol that provides encrypted and authenticated communication between two hosts. SSH can be used to remotely access and administer a server using a command-line interface or a graphical user interface. SSH can ensure the encryption of all server administration traffic, which can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing by unauthorized parties. References: (Objective 2.4)

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that controls the initialization and booting of a server. It also provides settings for the CPU, such as speed, voltage, and temperature. Updating the BIOS can improve the performance and compatibility of the CPU and other hardware components. Verified References: [BIOS], [CPU]

The administrator should perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server, and block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network. These actions will help to remove any malware that may have infected the application server and prevent any further unauthorized traffic to the known-bad public IP address. An antivirus scan can detect and remove malicious software that may be sending data to an external source, and a reboot can clear any temporary files or processes that may be related to the malware. Blocking access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network can prevent any future attempts to communicate with the malicious IP address.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.4, Objective 3.4; Chapter 6, Lesson 6.2, Objective 6.2

JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) is a storage configuration that combines different types and sizes of hard drives into one logical unit without any RAID level or redundancy. It allows users to see all the drives within the unit as one large storage space. JBOD can utilize all the available capacity of the drives but does not provide any performance or fault tolerance benefits. Verified References: [JBOD], [RAID]

A database server is a server that hosts a database management system (DBMS) that stores, organizes, and manipulates data. A database server is suitable for housing customer sales records, as it can provide fast and secure access, query and analysis capabilities, backup and recovery options, and scalability and performance optimization. Some examples of database servers are Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle Database, MySQL, and PostgreSQL. Verified References: [What is a Database Server?]

Applying security updates is one of the common operating system hardening methods that can help protect the OS from cyberattacks and vulnerabilities. Security updates are released by the OS developer to fix bugs, patch security holes, and improve performance. By installing the latest updates, the server administrator can ensure that the OS is up to date and secure12.

A differential backup is a type of backup that copies all the files that have changed since the last full backup. A differential backup requires more storage space than an incremental backup, which only copies the files that have changed since the last backup of any type, but it also requires less time to restore in case of data loss. By combining a full, weekly backup with daily differential backups, the administrator can ensure that only two backup sets are needed to restore a full backup as quickly as possible. Verified References: [Incremental vs Differential Backup]

This is the most likely cause of preventing the users from accessing the application server because a VLAN is a logical segmentation of a network that isolates traffic based on certain criteria. If the human resources department and the application server are on different VLANs, they will not be able to communicate with each other unless there is a router or a switch that can route between VLANs. References: .html

RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that uses two parity blocks to provide fault tolerance and redundancy for data storage. RAID 6 can withstand the failure of up to two disks in the array without losing any data. RAID 6 requires a minimum of four disks to operate, and it distributes the data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 6 has a high write penalty, which means that it takes more time and resources to write data to the disks than to read data from them. However, RAID 6 offers a high level of data protection and reliability, which makes it suitable for applications that require high availability and durability1.

RAID 1 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by mirroring the data from one disk to another disk. RAID 1 offers high read performance and data security, but it has low capacity and write performance. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks to operate, and it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2.

RAID 5 provides redundancy and fault tolerance by using one parity block to store information that can be used to reconstruct the data in case of a disk failure. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks to operate, and it distributes the data and parity blocks across all the disks in the array. RAID 5 offers a balance between performance, capacity, and data protection, but it can only tolerate the failure of one disk in the array. If more than one disk fails, all the data in the array is lost2.

Therefore, among these options, RAID 6 is the best solution for creating a data volume out of four disks with the most redundancy.

Open-source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone. It usually requires very little technical support and has no licensing fees. Therefore, it would be the lowest cost solution for an application that does not need much support. References: (Objective 2.3)

PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that is designed for Windows server administration. It can perform various tasks such as configuration, automation, and management of servers and applications. Verified References: [PowerShell], [Scripting language]

PowerShell is a scripting language and a command-line shell that uses commands that start with sec- to perform security-related tasks. For example, sec-edit is a command that edits security policies, sec-logon is a command that manages logon sessions, and sec-policy is a command that applies security templates. Verified References: [PowerShell security commands], [Security policy]

Port 53 is the standard port for DNS (Domain Name System) queries and responses. DNS is a service that translates domain names (such as into IP addresses (such as 192.0.2.1) and vice versa.  DNS is essential for internet connectivity, as it allows users and applications to access websites and other online resources by using human-readable names instead of numerical addresses1.

The DNSSrv server is a DNS server that provides name resolution for the corporate network. If port 53 is blocked on this server, it will not be able to communicate with other DNS servers or clients, and the name resolution will fail. This will prevent users from accessing any websites or online services that rely on domain names, such as web browsers, email clients, or cloud applications. Therefore, port 53 must remain open on DNSSrv to allow DNS traffic to flow.

This is the best solution to increase the speed of the NIC because link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This can increase the bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing of network traffic. Link aggregation requires both the server and the switch to support it and be configured accordingly. References:

This is the most likely cause of the issue because firewall rules can block or allow traffic based on source, destination, port, protocol, or other criteria. If the firewall rules are not configured properly, they can prevent remote users from accessing the cloud application server, while allowing on-site users to access it. References:

The answer to this question may depend on several factors, such as the number and type of Windows VMs, the number and type of host machines, the number and type of users, and the specific licensing terms and conditions of each licensing model. However, based on the information available from the web search results, one possible answer is per user.

Per user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a user to access Windows VMs from any device, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per user licensing model is available for Windows 10 Enterprise E3/E5, Windows VDA E3/E5, and Microsoft 365 F3/E3/E5. Per user licensing model may offer the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMs to run on a host for the lowest cost if the following conditions are met:

The user needs to access multiple Windows VMs from different devices, such as desktops, laptops, tablets, or smartphones.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run different versions or editions of Windows, such as Windows 10 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro, or Windows 7 Enterprise.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run on different types of host machines, such as physical servers, virtual servers, or cloud servers.

The user does not need to access Windows VMs that run on dedicated hardware or have specific performance or security requirements.

According to the web search results 1, per user licensing model costs $84 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E3, $168 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E5, $100.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E3, and $196.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E5. These prices are based on the Open License Program and may vary depending on the volume and agreement level2

Per core licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each core of the processor on the host machine that runs Windows VMs. Per core licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter and Standard editions. Per core licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine has a low number of cores or a high core density.

The host machine runs a high number of Windows VMs with low resource consumption.

The host machine runs only Windows Server VMs with the same edition as the host machine.

According to the web search results 2, per core licensing model costs $6,155 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter edition and $1,069 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Standard edition. These prices are suggested retail prices and may vary depending on the reseller2

Per instance licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each instance of Windows that runs on a host machine or a VM. Per instance licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition and some older versions of Windows Server. Per instance licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user or per core licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine runs only one instance of Windows Server with low resource consumption.

The host machine does not need to run any other VMs or applications.

The host machine does not need any advanced features or functions that are available in Datacenter or Standard editions.

According to the web search results 2, per instance licensing model costs $501 for one server license for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition. This price is suggested retail price and may vary depending on the reseller2

Per concurrent user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a certain number of users to access Windows VMs at the same time, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per concurrent user licensing model is not available for any current version of Windows or Windows Server. Per concurrent user licensing model was available for some older versions of Windows Server Terminal Services or Remote Desktop Services, but it was discontinued due to complexity and compliance issues. Therefore, per concurrent user licensing model cannot be used for running Windows VMs on a host.

A SAN (Storage Area Network) is a network of storage devices that can provide shared storage capacity to multiple servers. By connecting the server to a SAN, the administrator can increase the storage capacity of the server without adding any internal disks or expansion cards. This solution can be implemented quickly and without any downtime. Verified References: [What is a SAN and how does it differ from NAS?]

To calculate the minimum number of disks needed for this application, we need to consider the RAID levels and their disk requirements. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks and provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both disks. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks and provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. To create a 10GB RAID 1 array for log files, we need two 10GB disks. To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for data files, we need four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for the operating system, we need another four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). Therefore, the total number of disks needed is 2 + 4 + 4 = 10. However, since we can use different RAID levels for different partitions on the same disk, we can optimize the disk usage by using only eight disks as follows: Disk 1: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 2: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 3: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 4: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 5: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 6: 10GB RAID 5 (OS) + unused space Disk 7: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for OS) + unused space Disk 8: unused space References: ikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels

MRU, or Most Recently Used, is a concept that refers to prioritizing a connection that had previously worked successfully. It is often used in load balancing algorithms to distribute the workload among multiple servers or paths. MRU assumes that the most recently used connection is the most likely to be available and efficient, and therefore assigns the next request to that connection. This can help reduce latency and improve performance12. The other options are incorrect because they do not refer to prioritizing a previous connection. Round robin is a concept that refers to distributing the workload equally among all available connections in a circular order12. SCP, or Secure Copy Protocol, is a concept that refers to transferring files securely between hosts using encryption3. Link aggregation is a concept that refers to combining multiple physical links into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and redundancy4.

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple hard drives into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or capacity. RAID can be implemented by hardware, software, or a combination of both. Hardware RAID uses a dedicated controller to manage the RAID array, while software RAID uses the operating system or a driver to do the same1.

In this scenario, the technician noted that the RAID hard drives were functional while troubleshooting a motherboard failure. This means that the data on the drives was not corrupted or lost. However, the technician installed a spare motherboard with similar specifications and used the original components. This means that the new motherboard may not have the same RAID configuration as the old one, or it may not recognize the existing RAID array at all. Therefore, the technician needs to reconfigure the RAID in order to restore operations with minimal downtime.

A SD card is a type of flash memory card that can be used to store data and run applications. A SD card can be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server, as it provides fast boot time, low power consumption, and high reliability. A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the underlying computer’s physical hardware, interacting directly with its CPU, memory, and physical storage. For this reason, Type 1 hypervisors are also referred to as bare-metal hypervisors. A Type 1 hypervisor takes the place of a host operating system and VM resources are scheduled directly to the hardware by the hypervisor123. A NAS drive (B) is a type of network-attached storage (NAS) device that provides shared access to files and data over a network. A NAS drive cannot be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server, as it requires a network connection and a host operating system to function. A SATA drive © is a type of hard disk drive (HDD) or solid state drive (SSD) that uses the Serial ATA (SATA) interface to connect to a computer. A SATA drive can be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server, but it may have some disadvantages compared to a SD card, such as slower boot time, higher power consumption, and lower reliability. A SAS drive (D) is a type of hard disk drive (HDD) or solid state drive (SSD) that uses the Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interface to connect to a computer. A SAS drive can also be used to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server, but it may have similar disadvantages as a SATA drive, and it may also be more expensive and less compatible than a SD card. References: 1 2 com/topics/hypervisors 3 

netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more. The -a option shows all listening and non-listening sockets on the server. This can help check the open ports on a server and identify any unwanted or malicious connections. References:

The most likely cause of the servers displaying the wrong time is A. A firewall. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block or allow certain ports, protocols, or applications that are used for network communication.

One of the protocols that is used for time synchronization is the Network Time Protocol (NTP), which requires the use of UDP port 123 for all time synchronization1. If a firewall blocks this port, it can prevent the servers from obtaining the correct time from the time source. Therefore, the server administrator should check the firewall settings and make sure that UDP port 123 is allowed for NTP traffic.

NIC stands for network interface card, which is a hardware component that allows a server to connect to a network. Configuring NICs in pairs on a server would provide network redundancy, meaning that if one NIC fails, the other one can take over and maintain network connectivity. The other options are not related to network redundancy.

The per-concurrent user licensing model is a type of licensing model that restricts the number of active sessions or connections to a software application at any given time. This means that multiple users can share the same license, as long as they do not access the application simultaneously. This model is often used for applications that are accessed intermittently or for a short duration by different users, such as remote access software, web-based applications, or testing tools12.

A DR site is a backup site that can be used to restore business operations in case of a disaster that affects the primary site. A warm site is a DR site that has some equipment and data ready to be activated quickly, but not as fast as a hot site that has fully operational systems and data. A cold site is a DR site that has only basic infrastructure and no equipment or data. The location of a DR site is an important factor to consider when designing and implementing a DR plan. A DR site that is too close to the primary site may be affected by the same disaster, such as a power outage, a flood, or an earthquake. A DR site that is too far away from the primary site may incur higher costs and latency issues. Therefore, a good practice is to set up a DR site that is geographically located in another region that has different risk factors and environmental conditions than the primary site. This can help ensure that the DR site is available and accessible when needed. References: (Objective 3.3)

Grandfather-father-son (GFS) is a common backup rotation scheme that uses daily, weekly, and monthly backup media in a first-in, first-out (FIFO) method. The daily backups are rotated on a 3-months basis using a FIFO system as above. The weekly backups are similarly rotated on a bi-yearly basis, and the monthly backups are rotated on an annual basis. The oldest backup media in each cycle are overwritten by the newest ones. This scheme provides multiple versions of backup data at different intervals, allowing for flexible restoration options. Waterfall is another name for GFS. Synthetic full is a backup method that combines an initial full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without transferring all data again. Tower of Hanoi is another backup rotation scheme that uses an algorithm based on moving disks between three pegs. References:

RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that measures how much downtime an organization can tolerate during an unplanned outage before it affects its business continuity and reputation. RTO is usually expressed in hours or minutes and is determined by the criticality of the business processes and the impact of the outage on the revenue, customers, and stakeholders. RTO helps to define the recovery strategy and the resources needed to restore the normal operations as quickly as possible. Verified References: [RTO vs RPO]

A S.M.A.R.T. error is an indication of a potential failure of a hard drive. S.M.A.R.T. stands for Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology and it is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives. A hard drive test can help diagnose the issue and determine if the drive needs to be replaced. References: (Objective 1.1)

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) setup is a program that allows users to configure the hardware settings of a computer, such as the CPU, memory, disk, and boot options. The BIOS/UEFI setup can be accessed by pressing a specific key (such as F2, F10, or Delete) during the boot process, before the operating system loads12.

One of the settings that can be changed in the BIOS/UEFI setup is the CPU hyperthreading option. Hyperthreading is a technology that enables a single physical CPU core to execute two threads or tasks simultaneously, improving the performance and efficiency of multi-threaded applications. However, some software licenses may limit the number of CPU cores or threads that can be used, and therefore require disabling hyperthreading on the server34.

To disable hyperthreading on a server, the administrator will likely need to enter the BIOS/UEFI setup and navigate to the processor options menu. There, the administrator will find a setting for Intel ® Hyperthreading Technology or Hyperthreading Function, which can be enabled or disabled. The administrator will need to disable this setting and save the changes. This will turn off hyperthreading on the server and reduce the number of logical CPUs to match the number of physical cores5.

A differential backup is a backup method that protects all the changes that have occurred since the last full backup. A differential backup copies all the files that have been added or modified since the last full backup, regardless of whether they have been backed up before or not. A differential backup does not reset the archive bit of the files, which means they will be backed up again in the next differential backup. A differential backup requires more storage space and time than an incremental backup, but it simplifies the restoration process, as only the last full backup and the last differential backup are needed to restore the data

The audit.log file is a file that records security-related events on a Linux server, such as user login, file access, and system commands. The logrotate utility is a tool that rotates, compresses, and deletes old log files based on certain criteria, such as size, time, or frequency. To decrease the number of times the log rotates without losing any information, the administrator should increase the audit.log file size in the appropriate configuration file, such as /etc/logrotate.conf or /etc/logrotate.d/auditd. Verified References: [audit.log], [logrotate]

The bootloader configuration file is used to specify which kernel version and options to use when booting the system. The first kernel stanza in the file is the default one that is loaded automatically. By editing this stanza and changing it to point to the last known-good kernel files, the administrator can boot the system with a working kernel and avoid any compatibility issues with the new kernel update. Verified References: [How To Change The Linux Kernel Version]

Port 443 is the default port for HTTPS, which is the protocol used for secure web communication. HTTPS uses SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the data between the web server and the browser. Port 443 is commonly used for web servers that need to provide secure services, such as online banking, e-commerce, or email. By allowing port 443, the administrator can access the web server’s interface and manage its settings1.

Port 3389 is the default port for RDP, which is the protocol used for remote desktop connection. RDP allows a user to remotely access and control another computer over a network. Port 3389 is commonly used for remote administration, technical support, or remote work. By allowing port 3389, the administrator can connect to the web server’s desktop and perform tasks that require graphical user interface2.

This is the most likely misconfigured setting because the default gateway is the router that connects the local network to other networks. If the default gateway is incorrect, the server will not be able to communicate with remote users or devices outside its own subnet. References:

DLP, or Data Loss Prevention, is a type of security measure that aims to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can be applied to various types of data, such as email, cloud storage, network traffic, or fileshares1. DLP for fileshares can help monitor and control who can access, modify, or share files on a network share2. By turning on DLP for the fileshare and letting it propagate for a week, the administrator can audit the permissions of the fileshare and see if there are any violations or anomalies in the access patterns. This can help the administrator identify and remediate any potential risks or compliance issues related to the fileshare2. The other options are incorrect because they are not directly related to DLP for fileshares. Managing the fileshare from an RDP session or from the fileshare itself are administrative tasks that do not require DLP. Auditing the access to the physical fileshare is a physical security measure that is not affected by DLP.

A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.5, Objective 3.5

The port that should be disabled on the firewall is port 3389. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. RDP can pose a security risk if it is not properly configured or secured, as it can expose the system to unauthorized or malicious access from external sources. Therefore, port 3389 should be disabled on the firewall unless it is needed for legitimate purposes.

References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

Reflective glass is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization by reflecting light and preventing outsiders from seeing inside. Reflective glass can also reduce heat and glare, and enhance the aesthetic appearance of a building. Reflective glass is often used in high-security facilities, such as data centers, government buildings, or corporate headquarters12

1: Server Architecture for CompTIA Server+ (SK0-004) | Pluralsight 2: Introducing the CompTIA Infrastructure Career Pathway

RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses disk striping with parity. It requires a minimum of three disks and can handle one disk failure. RAID 5 distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, which improves the read performance and reduces the write penalty. The capacity of a RAID 5 array is (N-1) times the size of the smallest disk, where N is the number of disks in the array. Therefore, for six 4TB disks, the capacity of a RAID 5 array would be (6-1) x 4TB = 20TB, which meets the minimum disk space requirement of 19TB. RAID 5 also has the least amount of disk space lost to RAID overhead among the options, as it only uses one disk’s worth of space for parity

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. References: (Objective 3.2)

The most likely cause of this failure is that both power supplies were connected to the same power feed, which means that they both lost power when utility power was lost. To prevent this from happening, redundant power supplies should be connected to different power feeds, preferably from different sources, such as a UPS or a generator. Verified References: [Redundant Power Supply Best Practices]

A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that can be used to create new virtual machines quickly and easily. A template can include the operating system, applications, settings, and data that are required for a specific purpose or role. A type 1 hypervisor is a virtualization technology that runs directly on bare metal hardware, without requiring an underlying operating system. A type 1 hypervisor can provide better performance, security, and isolation for virtual machines than a type 2 hypervisor, which runs on top of an operating system. Verified References: [Template], [Type 1 hypervisor]

This is the best description of a hybrid cloud model because it combines both private and public cloud resources. A private cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a single organization and hosted in its own data center. A public cloud is a cloud environment that is owned and operated by a third-party provider and hosted in its data center. A hybrid cloud allows an organization to leverage both types of cloud resources depending on its needs and preferences. References:

1U stands for one unit and it is a standard unit of measurement for rack-mounted servers. It is equal to 1.75 inches (4.45 cm) in height. A 42U rack can accommodate 42 1U servers or a combination of servers with different unit sizes. Therefore, the unit size per server should be 1U if there are 19 1U servers in a 42U rack. References: (Objective 1.2)

The best course of action to preserve business continuity for a very old PC that is running a critical, proprietary application in MS-DOS is to purchase matching hardware and clone the disk. This way, the technician can create an exact copy of the PC’s configuration and data on another PC that has the same specifications and compatibility. This will ensure that the application can run smoothly on the new PC without any installation or configuration issues. Performing scheduled chkdsk tests would not help, as chkdsk is a tool that checks and repairs disk errors, but does not prevent hardware failures or software compatibility issues. Upgrading the hard disk to SSD would not help either, as SSDs may not be compatible with the old PC or the MS-DOS operating system. Performing quarterly backups would help with data protection, but not with hardware availability or software compatibility. References:

The server is infected with a virus and SELinux is enabled on the server are most likely causing the issue of unauthorized services running on the server. A virus is a type of malicious software that infects a system and performs unwanted or harmful actions, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or executing files. A virus can also create backdoors or open ports on a system to allow remote access or communication with external sites. SELinux (Security-Enhanced Linux) is a security module for Linux systems that enforces mandatory access control policies on processes and files. SELinux can prevent unauthorized services from running on a server by restricting their access to resources based on their security context. However, SELinux can also cause problems if it is not configured properly or if it conflicts with other security tools.

A tower server is a type of server architecture that is best suited to minimize cost when deploying a single server to monitor and record the security cameras at a remote site. A tower server is a standalone server that has a similar form factor and design as a desktop computer. It does not require any special mounting equipment or rack space and can be placed on or under a desk or table. A tower server is suitable for small businesses or remote offices that need only one or few servers for basic tasks such as file sharing, print serving, or security monitoring. A tower server is usually cheaper and easier to maintain than other types of servers, but it may have lower performance, scalability, and redundancy features. A virtual server is a type of server architecture that involves creating and running one or more virtual machines on a physical host using a hypervisor such as Hyper-V or VMware. A virtual server can reduce hardware costs and improve flexibility and efficiency, but it requires additional software licenses and management tools. A blade server is a type of server architecture that involves inserting multiple thin servers called blades into a chassis that provides power, cooling, network, and management features. A blade server can improve performance, density, and scalability, but it requires more initial investment and specialized equipment. A rack mount server is a type of server architecture that involves mounting one or more servers into standardized frames called racks that provide power, cooling, network, and security features

These are two methods that can prevent a user from installing an OS on a server if properly configured. A bootloader password is a password that protects the bootloader from unauthorized access or modification. The bootloader is a program that loads the operating system into memory when the system boots up. If a user does not know the bootloader password, they cannot change the boot order or boot from another device such as a CD-ROM or USB drive that contains an OS installation media. A BIOS/UEFI password is a password that protects the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) from unauthorized access or modification. The BIOS or UEFI is a firmware that initializes and configures the hardware components of the system before loading

The concept of right to downgrade allows a previous version of an OS to be installed and covered by the same license as the newer version. For example, if a customer has a license for Windows 10 Pro, they can choose to install Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 7 Professional instead and still be compliant with the license terms. Downgrade rights are granted by Microsoft for certain products and programs, such as Windows and Windows Server software acquired through Commercial Licensing, OEM, or retail channels. Downgrade rights are intended to provide customers with flexibility and compatibility when using Microsoft software.

The administrator should close ports 21 and 23 to secure the server properly. Port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is an unsecure protocol that allows file transfer between a client and a server over a network connection. FTP does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an unsecure protocol that allows remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI. Telnet does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted, making them vulnerable to interception or modification by attackers.

The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks. These ranges are:

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix) 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix) 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix)

Out of these ranges, only 172.16.19.241 falls within one of them (172.16/12 prefix). The other options are either public IP addresses that belong to other organizations or networks (11.251.196.241, 171.245.198.241) or invalid IP addresses that do not conform to any standard (193.168.145.241).

The DR testing scenario that is described as verbally walking through each step of the DR plan in the context of a meeting is tabletop. A tabletop test is a type of disaster recovery (DR) test that involves discussing and reviewing the DR plan with key stakeholders and participants in a simulated scenario. A tabletop test does not involve any actual execution of the DR plan or any disruption of the normal operations. A tabletop test can help identify gaps, issues, or inconsistencies in the DR plan and improve communication and coordination among the DR team members.

 The technician should configure RAID 6 for this drive array to meet the server specifications. RAID 6 is a type of RAID level that provides fault tolerance and performance enhancement by using striping and dual parity. Striping means dividing data into blocks and distributing them across multiple disks to increase speed and capacity. Parity means calculating and storing extra information that can be used to reconstruct data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 uses two sets of parity information for each stripe, which are stored on different disks. This way, RAID 6 can handle up to two disk failures without losing any data or functionality. RAID 6 also allows for the least amount of drive space lost to RAID overhead compared to other RAID levels that can handle two disk failures, such as RAID 1+0 or RAID 0+1.

Out-of-band console is a tool that can be used to command a remote shutdown of a physical Linux server. Out-of-band console is a method of accessing a server’s console through a dedicated management port or device that does not rely on the server’s operating system or network connection. Out-of-band console can be used to power cycle, reboot, update firmware, monitor performance, and perform other tasks remotely even if the server is unresponsive or offline. Crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a keyboard, monitor, mouse, and other tools that can be used to troubleshoot a server on-site, but it requires physical access to the server. IP KVM (Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse) switch is a hardware device that allows remote access to multiple servers using a web browser or a client software, but it requires network connectivity and may not work if the SSH connection is lost. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a protocol that allows remote access to a Windows server’s graphical user interface, but it does not work on Linux servers and requires network connectivity. References: tion/3422/remote-desktop-protocol-rdp

To ensure the partition is available to the OS, the technician must verify that the volume is formatted as GPT. GPT (GUID Partition Table) is a partitioning scheme that defines how data is organized on a hard disk drive (HDD) or a solid state drive (SSD). GPT uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions and supports up to 128 primary partitions per disk. GPT also supports disks larger than 2 TB and has a backup copy of the partition table at the end of the disk for data recovery. GPT is required for installing Windows on UEFI-based PCs, which offer faster boot time and better security than legacy BIOS-based PCs.

The first action that the administrator should take before swapping out the GPU card inside a server is to shut down the server. This is to ensure that the server is not running any processes that might be using the GPU card, and to prevent any damage to the hardware or data loss due to sudden power loss. Shutting down the server also reduces the risk of electrostatic discharge (ESD) that might harm the components. Reference:

Insider threat is the most likely system vulnerability in a company that deploys antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls that can be assumed to be functioning properly. An insider threat is a malicious or negligent act by an authorized user of a system or network that compromises the security or integrity of the system or network. An insider threat can include data theft, sabotage, espionage, fraud, or other types of attacks. Antivirus, anti-malware, and firewalls are security tools that can protect a system or network from external threats, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, or open ports. However, these tools cannot prevent an insider threat from exploiting their access privileges or credentials to harm the system or network.

The technician should boot from the media to install the firmware on the server. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of hardware devices, such as BIOS (Basic Input/Output System), RAID controllers, network cards, etc. Firmware updates are often provided by hardware manufacturers to fix bugs, improve performance, or add new features to their devices. To install firmware updates on a server, the technician needs to boot from a media device (such as a CD-ROM, DVD-ROM, USB flash drive, etc.) that contains the firmware files and installation program. The technician cannot install firmware updates from within the operating system because firmware updates often require restarting or resetting the hardware devices.

The term that best describes the amount of time a company can afford to be down during recovery from an outage is RTO. RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable downtime for an application, system, or process after a disaster or disruption. RTO helps determine the level of urgency and resources required for restoring normal business operations. RTO is usually measured in minutes, hours, or days, depending on the criticality and impact of the service.

 The tool that the administrator should use to check for unnecessary running services across 12 servers is a port scanner. A port scanner is a tool that scans a network device for open ports and identifies the services or applications that are running on those ports. A port scanner can help detect any unauthorized or unwanted services that may pose a security risk or consume network resources. A port scanner can also help troubleshoot network connectivity issues or verify firewall rules.

Bollards are an example of a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits. Bollards are short, sturdy posts that are installed on sidewalks, parking lots, or roads to create physical barriers and control traffic flow. Bollards can be used to protect pedestrians, buildings, or other structures from vehicle collisions or attacks. Bollards can be made of various materials, such as metal, concrete, or plastic, and can be fixed, removable, or retractable.

The cluster feature that will allow Ann to complete her task is failback. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for applications or services. A cluster can have different nodes or members that have different roles or states. An active node is a node that is currently running an application or service and serving requests from clients. A passive node is a node that is on standby and ready to take over if the active node fails. A failover is a process of switching from a failed or unavailable node to another node in a cluster. A failback is a process of switching back from a failover node to the original node after it becomes available again. Failback can be automatic or manual depending on the cluster configuration.

If users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address, it means that there is a problem with name resolution. The DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that maps hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. Therefore, the best step to perform next is to examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists and matches its IP address. If not, the DNS record needs to be added or updated accordingly. Running the tracert command from a workstation would not help with name resolution, as it only shows the route taken by packets to reach a destination by IP address. Correcting the missing DHCP scope would not help either, as DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) only assigns IP addresses and other network settings to clients, but does not resolve names. Updating the workstation hosts file would be a temporary workaround, but not a permanent solution, as it would require manually editing every workstation’s hosts file with the new server’s name and IP address. References:

The best policy to deter a brute-force login attack is account lockout threshold. A brute-force login attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a user’s password by trying different combinations of characters until it finds the correct one. This attack can be performed manually or with automated tools that use dictionaries, wordlists, or algorithms. An account lockout threshold is a policy that specifies how many failed login attempts are allowed before an account is locked out temporarily or permanently. This policy prevents an attacker from trying unlimited password guesses and reduces the chances of finding the correct password.

The administrator should check disk space in the /var directory first when using YUM to update applications on a server. YUM stands for Yellowdog Updater Modified, which is a software package manager for Linux systems that use RPM (Red Hat Package Manager) packages. YUM downloads and installs packages from online repositories and resolves dependencies automatically. YUM stores its cache files in the /var/cache/yum directory by default. These cache files include metadata and package data for each repository that YUM uses. If there is not enough disk space in the /var directory, YUM may fail to update applications and generate error messages.

The best backup methods to use to support the management’s priorities are differential and incremental. A backup is a process of copying data from a source to a destination for the purpose of restoring it in case of data loss or corruption. There are different types of backup methods that vary in terms of speed, efficiency, and storage requirements. Differential and incremental backups are two types of partial backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the data from the source to the destination. A full backup provides the most complete and reliable restore option, but it also takes the longest time and requires the most storage space. A differential backup copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup provides a faster restore option than an incremental backup, but it also takes more time and requires more storage space than an incremental backup. An incremental backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup provides the fastest and most efficient backup option, but it also requires multiple backups to restore the data completely.

Log rotation is a process that periodically renames, compresses, and deletes old log files to free up disk space and keep log files manageable. Log rotation can be configured using tools such as logrotate or cron on Linux systems, or using Windows Task Scheduler or PowerShell scripts on Windows systems. Log rotation can also help with log analysis and troubleshooting by making it easier to find relevant information in smaller and more recent log files. References: dows-commands/logman

Data at rest refers to data that is stored in a persistent state on any device or media, such as hard drives, tapes, or cloud storage. Data at rest does not move for long periods of time unless it is accessed or modified by authorized users or applications. A cold site (A) is a backup location that has minimal or no equipment and resources to resume business operations in case of a disaster. On-site retention © is a policy of keeping backup data on premises for a certain period of time before transferring it to an off-site location. Off-site storage (D) is a method of storing backup data in a remote location that is physically or logically separated from the primary site. References:

The backup type that only records changes to the data blocks on a virtual machine is snapshot. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

Two-person integrity is a security measure that can be implemented to increase security against a potential insider threat on an air-gapped system. An air-gapped system is a system that is isolated from any network connection and can only be accessed physically. An insider threat is a malicious actor who has authorized access to an organization’s system or data and uses it for unauthorized or harmful purposes. Two-person integrity is a system of storage and handling that requires the presence of at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized security procedures, for accessing certain sensitive data or material. This way, no single person can compromise the security or integrity of the data or material without being noticed by another person. SSO (Single Sign-On) is a feature that allows users to access multiple applications or systems with one set of credentials, but it does not prevent insider threats. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a tool that collects and analyzes log data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents, but it does not work on air-gapped systems. A Faraday cage is a structure that blocks electromagnetic signals from entering or leaving, but it does not prevent physical access or insider threats. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as something they know, something they have, or something they are, but it does not prevent insider threats. References:

The best way to ensure that there is a more direct relationship between the number of users using the server and the amount of space that might be used is to implement disk quotas. Disk quotas are a feature that allows a server administrator to limit the amount of disk space that each user or group can use on a file server. Disk quotas can help manage storage utilization, prevent disk space exhaustion, and enforce fair usage policies. Disk quotas can also provide reports and alerts on disk space usage and quota status.

A login script is a file that contains commands or instructions that are executed when a user logs into a system or network. A login script can be used to map a network drive to a user profile, which means that the user will have access to a shared folder or resource on another computer or server. A login script can be written in various languages, such as batch, PowerShell, or VBScript, and can be assigned to a user or a group using tools such as Group Policy or Active Directory . A system service (A) is a program that runs in the background and performs tasks that are essential for the operation of the system, such as security, networking, or hardware management. A system service does not map a network drive to a user profile. A network service (B) is a program that provides functionality or resources to other programs or devices over a network, such as file sharing, printing, or web hosting. A network service does not map a network drive to a user profile. A kickstart script (D) is a file that contains configuration settings and commands for automated installation of Linux operating systems. A kickstart script does not map a network drive to a user profile. References:

The installation of an OS contained entirely within another OS installation is described as a guest. A guest is a term that refers to a virtual machine (VM) that runs on top of a host operating system (OS) using a hypervisor or a virtualization software. A guest can have a different OS than the host, and can run multiple applications or services independently from the host. A guest can also be isolated from the host and other guests for security or testing purposes.

Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.

The most likely solution to resolve the issue of the server crashing after running normally for approximately five minutes is to reinstall the heat sink with new thermal paste. A heat sink is a device that dissipates heat from a component, such as a processor or a graphics card, by transferring it to a cooling medium, such as air or liquid. A heat sink is usually attached to the component using thermal paste, which is a substance that fills the gaps between the heat sink and the component and improves thermal conductivity. Thermal paste can degrade over time and lose its effectiveness, resulting in overheating and performance issues. If a server crashes after running for a short period of time, it may indicate that the processor is overheating due to insufficient cooling. To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the heat sink, clean the old thermal paste, apply new thermal paste, and reinstall the heat sink.

This is the most appropriate way to complete the task because it follows the best practices of cable management. Cable management is a process of organizing and securing cables in a rack or a server room to improve airflow, accessibility, safety, and aesthetics. Running the network cables up the left side and the power cables down the right side of the rack helps to avoid cable clutter, interference, and confusion. It also makes it easier to trace and troubleshoot cables if needed. Using appropriate-length cables also helps to reduce cable slack and excess. Wiring the cables through the cable management arm may cause stress and damage to the cables when moving the server in or out of the rack. Using the longest cables possible may create cable loops and tangles that can block airflow and increase fire hazards. Installing an Ethernet patch panel and a PDU (Power Distribution Unit) may be useful for accommodating more network and power cables, but not necessary for a single server. References:

The first thing that the technician should do before installing a new server OS on legacy server hardware is to consult the HCL (Hardware Compatibility List) to ensure everything is supported. The HCL is a list of hardware devices and components that are tested and certified to work with a specific OS or software product. The HCL helps to avoid compatibility issues and performance problems that may arise from using unsupported or incompatible hardware. Migrating the physical server to a virtual server may be a good option to improve scalability and flexibility, but it requires additional hardware and software resources and may not be feasible for legacy server hardware. Low-level formatting the hard drives may be a good practice to erase any old data and prepare the drives for a new OS installation, but it does not guarantee that the hardware will work with the new OS. Making sure the case and the fans are free from dust may be a good practice to ensure proper cooling and prevent overheating, but it does not guarantee that the hardware will work with the new OS. References: how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/

If a server has two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAID 0 set for the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data, then the most likely failure scenario that caused the server to crash and not boot is that a drive failed in the OS array. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. RAID 0 offers high performance but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 10 is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping with parity. RAID 10 offers high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 can tolerate up to one drive failure per mirrored pair without losing data or functionality. References:

Deploying a virtual machine from a template creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the template. The new virtual machine has the virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties that are configured for the template.

The most appropriate native protocol to use for connecting a Linux server to a share on a NAS is NFS. NFS (Network File System) is a protocol that allows file sharing and remote access over a network. NFS is designed for Unix-like operating systems, such as Linux, and supports features such as symbolic links, hard links, file locking, and file permissions. NFS uses mount points to attach remote file systems to local file systems, making them appear as if they are part of the local file system. NFS can provide fast and reliable access to files stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage), which is a device that provides centralized storage for network devices.

The server administrator should use cable management to prevent network connectivity loss when pulling a server from the rack during maintenance. Cable management is a practice of organizing and securing the cables that connect various devices and components in a system. Cable management can help improve airflow, reduce clutter, prevent tangling, and avoid accidental disconnection or damage of cables. Cable management can be done using various tools and techniques, such as cable ties, cable trays, cable labels, cable organizers, or cable ducts.

If the server administrator patches the server with the latest vendor-suggested software, configures DHCP, and verifies all network cables are properly connected in the IDF, but there is no network connectivity, then the most likely reason for the lack of connectivity is that the VLAN is improperly configured. A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain and can communicate with each other without routing. If the server is assigned to a different VLAN than the DHCP server or the default gateway, it will not be able to obtain an IP address or reach other network devices. The DNS configuration is not relevant for network connectivity, as DNS only resolves names to IP addresses. The OS version is not likely to be incompatible with the network switch vendor, as most network switches use standard protocols and interfaces. The HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is not likely to prevent the connection, as HIDS only monitors and alerts on suspicious activities on the host. References: on-detection-system-ids-and-how-does-it-work/

If a server has three hard drives configured in a RAID 5 array, it means that the data is striped across all three drives with parity information. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without losing data, but not two or more. If there are multiple failed hard drives, the RAID 5 array will become corrupted and the OS will not load. The other options are not likely to cause the issue, as the server passes POST, the CPU and RAM are seated correctly, the BIOS settings are correct, and the OS loads from a bootable USB drive. RAID 5 does not require four drives, it can work with three or more. References:

The best immediate actions to prevent unauthorized server access are to stop all unneeded services and block the ports on the firewall. Stopping unneeded services reduces the attack surface of the server by eliminating potential entry points for attackers. For example, if the server is not functioning as a web server, there is no need to run a web service on port 80. Blocking ports on the firewall prevents unauthorized network traffic from reaching the server. For example, if port 80 is not needed for any legitimate purpose, it can be blocked on the firewall to deny any connection attempts on that port.

This is the command that would best resolve the error message “Bash ./startup.sh: Permission denied” when trying to execute a script on Linux. Chmod is a command that changes the permissions of files or directories on Linux. +x is an option that adds the execute permission to the file or directory for the owner, group, and others. startup.sh is the name of the script file that needs to be executed. By running chmod +x startup.sh, the technician grants execute permission to the script file and allows it to be run by any user. Chmod +w startup.sh would add write permission to the file, but not execute permission. Chmod 444 startup.sh would set read-only permission for all users, but not execute permission. Chmod 466 startup.sh would set read and write permission for the owner and write-only permission for group and others, but not execute permission. References:

To disable root login over SSH, the server administrator needs to edit the SSH configuration file located at /etc/ssh/sshd_config. This file contains various settings for the SSH daemon that runs on the server and accepts incoming SSH connections. The administrator needs to find the line that says PermitRootLogin and change it to no or comment it out with a # symbol. Then, the administrator needs to restart the SSH service for the changes to take effect. References:

An insider threat is a type of risk that can be mitigated by implementing split encryption keys for sensitive files. An insider threat is a malicious actor who has authorized access to an organization’s system or data and uses it for unauthorized or harmful purposes. An insider threat can cause data breaches, sabotage, fraud, theft, espionage, or other damages to the organization. Split encryption keys are a method of encrypting data using multiple keys that are stored separately and require collaboration to decrypt. Split encryption keys can prevent an insider threat from accessing or compromising sensitive data without being detected by another authorized party who holds another key. Hardware failure is a type of risk that involves physical damage or malfunction of hardware components such as hard drives, memory modules, power supplies, or fans. Hardware failure can cause data loss, system downtime, performance issues, or other problems for the organization. Hardware failure cannot be mitigated by split encryption keys, but by backup, redundancy, monitoring, and maintenance measures.

The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.

Teaming is a technique that can be configured on a server for network redundancy. Teaming involves combining two or more network adapters into a single logical unit that acts as one network interface. This way, if one network adapter fails, another one can take over without disrupting network connectivity. Teaming can also improve network performance by load balancing traffic across multiple network adapters. Clustering is a technique that involves grouping two or more servers together to act as one system for high availability and fault tolerance. Virtualizing is a technique that involves creating multiple virtual machines on a single physical server to optimize resource utilization and flexibility. Cloning is a technique that involves creating an exact copy of a server’s configuration and data for backup or migration purposes. References: