F3 Exam Dumps : Financial Strategy

A company has a 5.25% fixed-rate loan and wants to swap it to variable using a swap quoted:

4.50% – 4.55% in exchange for Libor

(Libor currently 4%)

To turn its fixed loan into a synthetic floating-rate loan, the company needs to:

Receive fixed (to offset part of the 5.25% it pays on the loan), and

Pay Libor (to end up with variable cost).

From the swap quote, if the company wants to receive fixed, it gets the lower rate: 4.50% (the bank’s bid rate).

Cash flows:

Pay 5.25% fixed on the loan

Receive 4.50% fixed on the swap

Pay Libor (4.00%) on the swap

Net cost:

5.25%−4.50%+4.00%=0.75%+4.00%=4.75%5.25\% - 4.50\% + 4.00\% = 0.75\% + 4.00\% = 4.75\%5.25%−4.50%+4.00%=0.75%+4.00%=4.75%

✅ Answer to Q28: B. 4.75%

Let’s walk it through carefully.

1. Current earnings and EPS

EBIT = 5m

Current interest (5% × 10m) = 0.5m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.5 = 4.5m

Tax (20%) = 0.9m

Earnings = 4.5 − 0.9 = 3.6m

Shares = 10m → EPS₀ = 3.6 / 10 = 0.36

Current share price = 3.60 → current P/E = 3.60 / 0.36 = 10 (matches the question context).

2. Earnings next year with higher interest

New interest rate = 6% → interest = 10m × 6% = 0.6m

Profit before tax = 5.0 − 0.6 = 4.4m

Tax (20%) = 0.88m

Earnings = 4.4 − 0.88 = 3.52m

EPS₁ = 3.52 / 10m = 0.352

3. New share price using new P/E

Expected P/E next year = 9.5

Price1=EPS1×P/E1=0.352×9.5=3.344\text{Price}_1 = \text{EPS}_1 \times \text{P/E}_1 = 0.352 \times 9.5 = 3.344Price1​=EPS1​×P/E1​=0.352×9.5=3.344

4. Percentage reduction in share price

Current price = 3.60

New price ≈ 3.344

Drop = 3.60 − 3.344 = 0.256

% reduction=0.2563.60≈7.1%≈7%\%\ \text{reduction} = \frac{0.256}{3.60} \approx 7.1\% \approx 7\%% reduction=3.600.256​≈7.1%≈7%

So the closest option is A. Reduction of 7%.

Increase initially then decrease

This question tests understanding of the traditional theory of capital structure, a core topic within CIMA F3 under Cost of Capital and Capital Structure. The traditional view differs from Modigliani and Miller by arguing that there is an optimal capital structure where a company’s Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is minimised.

According to traditional theory, at low levels of gearing, introducing debt into the capital structure reduces WACC. This occurs because debt is generally cheaper than equity, largely due to lower risk for lenders and the tax deductibility of interest payments. Initially, equity holders do not perceive a significant increase in financial risk, so the cost of equity remains relatively stable. As a result, replacing some equity with cheaper debt lowers the overall WACC.

However, as gearing continues to rise beyond a certain point, the financial risk borne by both debt holders and equity holders increases substantially. Lenders demand higher interest rates to compensate for increased default risk, and shareholders require a higher return due to greater earnings volatility. This leads to rising costs of both debt and equity. Beyond the optimal gearing level, these rising costs outweigh the benefits of cheaper debt, causing WACC to increase.

CIMA F3 study guidance therefore concludes that under traditional theory, WACC:

Falls initially as gearing increases, and

Rises after the optimal capital structure is exceeded.

Since the directors are increasing gearing toward an industry average, the most appropriate description of WACC behaviour under traditional theory is that it will decrease initially and then increase.