CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

We’re looking for long-term changes that would improve a company’s credit rating (i.e. reduce perceived credit risk and increase capacity to service debt):

A. Increase in interest cover (EBIT / interest) → higher coverage, safer for lenders → positive.

B. Decrease in (Net debt)/(EBITDA) → lower leverage relative to earnings → positive.

C. Increase in free cash flow from operations → more internally generated cash to pay interest and repay debt → positive.

D. Decrease in (Book debt)/(Book equity) is also a good sign in reality, but the question restricts us to three; exam focus is usually on coverage and cash flow-based ratios, so A, B and C are the best three.

E. Decrease in dividend cover (earnings / dividend) means paying a larger proportion of earnings out as dividends → less retained profit and weaker protection for creditors → negative for credit rating.

So the three most likely to improve the rating: A, B, C.

CIMA F3 links the cost of debt to the tax shield created by the tax deductibility of interest. The effective cost of servicing debt to a company is therefore the post-tax cost of debt, commonly expressed as kd(1−T)k_d(1-T)kd​(1−T). This makes statement C correct: when evaluating financing decisions and WACC, the company benefits from interest tax relief, so the relevant servicing cost is after tax. Statement A is also treated as correct in the standard F3 exam context: zero-coupon debt pays no periodic coupon interest, so there are no regular interest payments generating the conventional annual tax-deductible interest expense and therefore the familiar tax-shield effect on “interest payments” is not obtained in the same way (i.e., the typical coupon-based shield is eliminated). Statement B is incorrect because the size of the tax shield depends on the tax rate; if corporation tax changes, the value of the tax relief changes. Statement D is incorrect because if corporation tax rates rise, the tax shield from deductible interest would increase, not reduce (a higher tax rate increases the tax saving per dollar of interest). Hence the two correct statements are A and C.

When valuing an unlisted company using a P/E ratio from a similar listed company, we normally reduce the proxy P/E to reflect the extra risk and reduced attractiveness of the unlisted investment.

A. Relative lack of marketability – Unlisted shares are harder to sell and usually take longer to realise, so investors demand a higher return, i.e. a lower P/E. ✔

B. Lower level of scrutiny and regulation – Unlisted companies face less disclosure and governance requirements, so information risk is higher. Greater risk ⇒ lower valuation multiple ⇒ reduced P/E. ✔

C. Smaller and less established – Unlisted companies tend to be smaller, less diversified and less stable, so investors again expect a higher return, implying a lower P/E. ✔

D. Control premium not included – If the proxy P/E excludes a control premium but you are valuing a controlling stake, you would increase the P/E, not reduce it. ✘

E. Higher forecast earnings growth – Higher expected growth justifies a higher P/E, not a lower one. ✘

F. One-off profit item in latest earnings – This should be dealt with by adjusting the earnings, not by cutting the P/E multiple. ✘

So the three factors justifying a reduction in the proxy P/E are A, B and C.