CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Company B (all equity):

Cost of equity = asset return = Ku = 17%

Company A:

Gearing D:E = 1:2 → D/E = 0.5

Pre-tax cost of debt Kd = 7%

Tax rate T = 30%

Levered cost of equity with tax:

Ke=Ku+DE(1−T)(Ku−Kd)K_e = K_u + \frac{D}{E}(1 - T)(K_u - K_d)Ke​=Ku​+ED​(1−T)(Ku​−Kd​) Ke=17%+0.5×0.7×(17%−7%)=17%+0.5×0.7×10%=17%+3.5%=20.5%K_e = 17\% + 0.5 \times 0.7 \times (17\% - 7\%) = 17\% + 0.5 \times 0.7 \times 10\% = 17\% + 3.5\% = 20.5\%Ke​=17%+0.5×0.7×(17%−7%)=17%+0.5×0.7×10%=17%+3.5%=20.5%

✅ Correct: A. 20.5%

PPP says identical goods should cost the same when prices are expressed in a common currency, but in reality transport costs, taxes, tariffs, and market imperfections can allow differences to persist.

Answer: C. Economic forces should eliminate the price difference, but imperfections may permit it to persist.

A. Any opportunity to benefit from future exchange rate movements is lost.

True – a money market hedge locks in the effective exchange rate now, so you remove both downside risk and upside potential.

B. It can be tailored to match the size of the payment.

True – you can structure the borrowing/lending and FX transaction to exactly match the foreign currency amount due.

C. It manages transaction risk.

True – transaction risk (uncertainty in the home currency value of a known future foreign-currency cash flow) is what a money market hedge directly addresses.

D. It offers a significantly better outcome than a forward contract.

False – under interest rate parity, a money market hedge and a forward contract should give similar effective rates (ignoring spreads and costs).

E. It avoids the need to find immediate finance.

False – for a payable, you normally borrow or use cash now as part of the hedge, so it does not avoid immediate financing; it actually requires it.

✅ Answer to Q29: A, B, C