CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

If the company switches from a residual dividend policy to a stable, growing dividend and increases its use of debt:

A. This does signal to the market that the company may be entering a more stable, mature growth phase – True.

B. A more stable dividend stream can attract a different type of investor (clientele effect) – True.

C. Directors still need to consider shareholder preferences; this statement is incorrect – False.

D. Retained earnings have an opportunity cost equal to the cost of equity and are generally not cheaper than debt – False.

E. More debt increases financial gearing and therefore financial risk – True.

Answer (200273):

Interest rate swaps are covered in CIMA F3 under risk management and derivative instruments, specifically as tools for managing interest rate risk. An interest rate swap is an agreement between two parties to exchange interest payment obligations, typically swapping fixed-rate interest payments for floating-rate payments, or vice versa, on a notional principal amount.

Option A is TRUE.

CIMA F3 recognises that although swaps are primarily used for hedging, some companies may enter into interest rate swaps for speculative or risk-taking purposes. If management believes it has superior forecasts of future interest rate movements compared to the market, it may deliberately increase exposure to interest rate risk by swapping into floating rates or fixed rates accordingly. This behaviour is discussed in F3 as speculation rather than pure hedging.

Option E is TRUE.

An interest rate swap is an external hedging technique. CIMA F3 clearly distinguishes between:

Internal hedging (e.g. matching assets and liabilities, netting, leading and lagging), and

External hedging, which involves using financial instruments with third parties, such as forwards, futures, options and swaps.

Since a swap involves a counterparty (often a bank or financial institution), it is classified as an external hedge.

The remaining options are incorrect:

B is FALSE. Default risk does not automatically become “high” for the floating-rate payer when interest rates rise; it depends on the firm’s overall financial strength and cash flows. Rising rates increase payments, but not necessarily default risk to a high level.

C is FALSE. When interest rates fall, the fixed-rate payer is at a disadvantage (paying above-market rates), which may increase rather than reduce financial strain.

D is FALSE. An interest rate swap is not an internal hedging technique; it requires an external counterparty.

✅ Final Answer: A and E

Profit before tax = $4.0m

Tax at 25% → earnings = $4.0m × (1 − 0.25) = $3.0m

For a takeover, the most relevant comparators are recent takeover P/E multiples in the same industry: 9–10x.

Minimum value = 3.0 × 9 = $27m

Maximum value = 3.0 × 10 = $30m

Answer: B. Minimum = $27m, maximum = $30m