CIMA F3 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

When valuing an unlisted company using a P/E ratio from a similar listed company, we normally reduce the proxy P/E to reflect the extra risk and reduced attractiveness of the unlisted investment.

A. Relative lack of marketability – Unlisted shares are harder to sell and usually take longer to realise, so investors demand a higher return, i.e. a lower P/E. ✔

B. Lower level of scrutiny and regulation – Unlisted companies face less disclosure and governance requirements, so information risk is higher. Greater risk ⇒ lower valuation multiple ⇒ reduced P/E. ✔

C. Smaller and less established – Unlisted companies tend to be smaller, less diversified and less stable, so investors again expect a higher return, implying a lower P/E. ✔

D. Control premium not included – If the proxy P/E excludes a control premium but you are valuing a controlling stake, you would increase the P/E, not reduce it. ✘

E. Higher forecast earnings growth – Higher expected growth justifies a higher P/E, not a lower one. ✘

F. One-off profit item in latest earnings – This should be dealt with by adjusting the earnings, not by cutting the P/E multiple. ✘

So the three factors justifying a reduction in the proxy P/E are A, B and C.

The company is repurchasing and cancelling its own shares.

When shares are cancelled:

Share capital is reduced by the nominal value of the shares bought back. ✅

Any amount paid above nominal value reduces equity reserves (such as share premium and/or retained earnings), but it does not go through the Income Statement.

Total equity does decrease by the full repurchase amount (so option C is wrong).

No element of the repurchase (including any “premium to market value”) is treated as an expense in the Income Statement under IFRS – it’s purely an equity transaction (so D is wrong).

Option A is too specific and not strictly correct, because the premium over nominal is not necessarily all charged only to retained earnings – it can also be charged to share premium / other reserves.

So the one fully correct statement is:

B. The share capital figure would reduce by the nominal value of the shares purchased.

Company X is an established, unquoted, specialist IT advisory firm with steady results, predictable dividends and cashflows. Company P is only buying 30% (a minority stake).

B. Dividend based using DVM – Very suitable because dividends are predictable and regular. For a minority stake, dividends are often the main measurable return, so a dividend valuation model is appropriate.

C. Cash based using free cash flow before interest – A DCF valuation based on free cash flow to the firm is also appropriate for a profitable, growing, going concern. You can value the whole business using FCFF and then take 30% of the equity value.

Asset-based (A) is less relevant for a specialist service company with relatively few tangible assets. P/E-based methods (D and E) are less ideal given there are few direct competitors, making comparables unreliable.