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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Question 2

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

Question 3

Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team

members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

B.

The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

D.

Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question 5

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

Options:

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

Question 6

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

Question 7

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Question 8

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Testing the software under test (SUT) based on the design is black-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour is experience based testing.

B.

Testing the software under test (SUT) is possible only after implementation in white-box testing whereas testing the software even before implementation is possible in exploratory testing.

C.

Testing the software under test (SUT) using knowledge of the tester is experience based testing whereas testing the specification based behaviour without pre-written test cases is using black-box testing techniques.

D.

Testing based on the structure of the software under test (SUT) is white-box testing whereas testing the input-output behaviour without pre-written test cases is experience based testing.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Question 10

Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control (QC)?

Options:

A.

QA is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.

B.

QA is the responsibility of everyone on a project, while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated team.

C.

QA is preventive, while QC is corrective.

D.

QA is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement.

Question 11

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9,5001

B.

10,5000

C.

9,10,11,4999,5000,5001

D.

9,10,5000,5001

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is true?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question 14

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

Question 15

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

Question 16

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

Question 17

Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases

Options:

A.

Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system

B.

A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters

C.

The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat

D.

Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system

Question 18

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 19

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

Question 20

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product:

1.Risk register

2.Risk information

3.Test cases

4.Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C.

Test design work products

D.

Test monitoring and control work products

E.

1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

F.

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

G.

1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

Question 21

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

Question 22

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

Question 23

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299999 TC2=300000 TC3=300001

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault

Question 24

An agile software development organization has recently hired a senior tester. The organization has distributed teams spread across time zones. They need to share test status with various stakeholders including upper management and customers at a regular interval. Which of the following statements seems to be correct with regards to the communication?

Options:

A.

Since the stakeholders include upper management, formal reports delivered face-to-face are critical.

B.

Distributed nature of teams working in various time zones means email communication will work better.

C.

Agile nature of the project means very less documentation and hence the status need not be documented and shared in a formal manner

D.

Since the stakeholders include customers frequent informal communication without a specific frequency works better.

Question 25

Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

Options:

A.

Evaluate test basis and test object

B.

Create test completion report

C.

Assess testability of test object

D.

Define test environment requirements

Question 26

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Question 27

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

Question 28

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

Question 29

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

Question 30

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning. However, the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever.

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Configuration Management Tool

B.

Incident Management Tool

C.

Backup tool

D.

Test Execution tool

Question 31

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

Question 32

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 33

Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

Options:

A.

Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing

B.

Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

C.

Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing

D.

Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts

Question 34

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

D.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

Question 35

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299999 TC2=300000 TC3=300001

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault

Question 36

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 37

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

Question 38

A typical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to:

Options:

A.

take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team

C.

use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient

D.

determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

Question 39

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 40

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

Options:

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing.

D.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

Question 41

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Reproducing the failure

B.

Adding new test cases

C.

Fixing the cause

D.

Diagnosing the root cause

Question 43

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

B.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

C.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

D.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

Question 44

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

Question 45

Which of the following types of tools is best suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerization tool

B.

Fault seeding tool

C.

Static analysis tool

D.

Test data preparation tool