Pre-Summer Special - Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: top65certs

Free and Premium Cisco 300-410 Dumps Questions Answers

Page: 1 / 45
Total 594 questions

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What are the two goals of micro BFD sessions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The high bandwidth member link of a link aggregation group must run BFD

B.

Run the BFD session with 3x3 ms hello timer

C.

Continuity for each member link of a link aggregation group must be verified

D.

Eny member link on a link aggregation group must run BFD

E.

Each member link of a link aggregation group must run BFD.

Buy Now
Question 2

Refer to Exhibit.

PC2 is directly connected to R1. A user at PC2 cannot Telnet to 2001:db8:a:b::10. The user can ping

2001:db8:a:b::10 and receive DHCP-related information from the DHCP server. Which action resolves

the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove sequence 10 and put it back as sequence 25.

B.

Remove sequence 20 and put it back as sequence 45.

C.

Remove sequence 30 and put it back as sequence 5.

D.

Remove sequence 40 and put it back as sequence 15.

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Mutual redistribution is enabled between RIP and EIGRP on R2 and R5. Which configuration resolves the routing loop for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R2:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s1!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit anyR5:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s0!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit any

B.

R2:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s0!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit anyR5:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s0!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit any

C.

R2:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s0!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit anyR5:router eigrp 10network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s1!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 10 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit any

D.

R2:router eigrp 7network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s1!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 7 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit anyR5:router eigrp 7network 181.16.0.0redistribute rip metric 1 1 1 1 1distribute-list 1 in s1!router ripnetwork 178.1.0.0redistribute eigrp 7 metric 2!access-list 1 deny 192.168.1.0access-list 1 permit any

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NetFlow to capture traffic information through the router, but it iOS not working as expected. Which action captures the flow information from this router to the collector?

Options:

A.

Change the interface configuration FLOW-MONITOR-1 from input to output.

B.

Configure a flow exporter under flow FLOW-MONITOR-1.

C.

Configure more than one flow exporter destination addresses.

D.

Change the flow exporter transport protocol from UDP to TCP

Question 5

Refer to me exhibit. The hub and spoke are connected via two DMVPN tunnel interfaces The NHRP is configured and the tunnels are detected on the hub and the spoke Which configuration command adds an IPsec profile on both tunnel interfaces to encrypt traffic?

Options:

A.

tunnel protection ipsec profile DMVPN multipoint

B.

tunnel protection ipsec profile DMVPN tunnel1

C.

tunnel protection ipsec profile DMVPN shared

D.

tunnel protection ipsec profile DMVPN unique

Question 6

What is an MPLS LDP targeted session?

Options:

A.

session between neighbors that are connected no more than one hop away

B.

LDP session established between LSRs by exchanging TCP hello packets

C.

label distribution session between non-directly connected neighbors

D.

LDP session established by exchanging multicast hello packets

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. The IT router has been configured with the Science VRF and the interfaces have been assigned to the VRF. Which set of configurations advertises Science-1 and Science-2 routes using EIGRPAS 111?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Although summarization is configured for R1 to receive 10.0.0.0/8. more specific routes are received by R1. How should the 10.0.0.0/8 summary route be received from the neighbor, attached to R1 via Fast Ethernet0/0 interface?

Options:

A.

R1 should configure the ip summary-address eigrp 10.0.0.0.255.0.0.0 command under the Fast Ethernet 0/0 interface.

B.

The summarization condition is not met Router 10 1 100.10 requires a route for 10 0.0.0/8 that points to null 0

C.

The summarization condition is not met. The network 10.1.100.0/24 should be changed to 172.16.0.0/24.

D.

R1 should configure the ip summary-address eigrp 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 command under the Fast Ethernet 0/0 interface.

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

After the network administrator rebuilds the IPv6 DHCP server, clients are not getting the IPv6 address lease. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Remove FE80 A8BB CCFF FEOO 5000 assigned by the IPV6 DHCP server.

B.

Add Ipv6 dhcp sarver MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on H1.

C.

Add Ipv6 dhcp server MY_POOL under the interface ethernet 0/0 on R1.

D.

Configure FF02::1:2 to discover al IPv6 OHCP cfcents

Question 10

Which IPv6 first hop security feature controls the traffic necessary for proper discovery of neighbor device operation and performance?

Options:

A.

RA Throttling

B.

Source or Destination Guard

C.

ND Multicast Suppression

D.

IPv6 Snooping

Question 11

A newly installed spoke router is configured for DMVPN with the ip mtu 1400 command. Which configuration allows the spoke to use fragmentation with the maximum negotiated TCP MTU over GRE?

Options:

A.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

B.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation after-encryption

C.

ip tcp adjust-mss 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

D.

ip tcp adjust-mtu 1360crypto ipsec fragmentation mtu-discovery

Question 12

Refer to the exhibit After a misconfiguration by a junior engineer, the console access to router A is not working Which configuration allows access to router A?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must advertise routes into IPv6 MP-BGP and failed. Which configuration resolves the issue on R1?

Options:

A.

router bgp 65000no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 multicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

B.

router bgp 65000no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 unicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

C.

router bgp 64900no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 unicastnetwork 2001:DB8::/64

D.

router bgp 64900no bgp default ipv4-unicastaddress-family ipv6 multicastneighbor 2001:DB8:7000::2 translate-update ipv6 multicast

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. R1 uses SP1 as the primary path. A network engineer must force all SSH traffic generated from R1 toward SP2. Which configuration accomplishes the task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit R1 cannot authenticate via TACACS Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a per VRF for TACACS+ for company A. Which configuration on RTG-1 accomplishes the task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 17

Refer to the exhibit. In Cuco DNA Center, a network engineer identifies that BGP-learned networks are repeatedly withdrawn from peers. Which configuration must the engineer apply to resolve the Issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 18

:579

Refer to the exhibit. Router ABR-Rtr is not propagating the internet routes in OSPF area 10. which causes internet reachability problems in the area. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ABR-Rtr must configure the default-information originate always command.

B.

ABR-Rtr must configure the area 10 stub no-summary command.

C.

ABR-Rtr network type must be broadcast network.

D.

ABR-Rtr must advertise the 0.0.0.0/0 default route in area 10.

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit.

R4 is experiencing packet drop when trying to reach 172.16.2.7 behind R2. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Insert a /16 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

B.

Insert a /24 floating static route on R2 toward R3 with metric 254

C.

Enable auto summarization on all three routers R1, R2, and R3

D.

Disable auto summarization on R2

Question 20

Which feature minimizes DoS attacks on an IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Binding Security Table

B.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

IPv6 Destination Guard

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit.

After a security audit, the administrator implemented an ACL in the route reflector. The RR became unreachable from any router in the network. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the ND proxy feature on the default gateway.

B.

Configure a link-local address on the Ethernet0/1 interface.

C.

Permit ICMPv6 neighbor discovery traffic in the ACL.

D.

Remove the ACL entry 80.

E.

Change the next hop of the default route to the link-local address of the default gateway.

Question 22

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured routers R1 and R2 with MP-BGP. The engineer noticed that the routers cannot exchange any IPv6 routes, however, the IPv4 neighbor relationship is working fine. Which configuration must the engineer apply to router R2 to exchange IPv6 routes?

Options:

A.

Ipv6cef I Interface Loopback100Ipv6 address 2001: DB8:128::2/128 Interface GigabitEthernet1/0Ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 I router bgp 65002no bgp default ipv4-unlcastneighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 emote-as 65001Iaddress-family ipv6network 2001:DB8:128::2/128neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

B.

Ipv6 unicast-routingipv6 cefInterface Loopback100ipv6 address 2001: DB8:12C:2 129Iinterface GigabitEthernet1/0ipv6 address 2001: DB8:1::2 64description AS65001 ID B466:A83D:3D7::1!router bgp 65002no bgp default Ipv4-unicastneighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001!address-family Ipv4neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

C.

Ipv6 unicast-routingipvG cefIInterface Loopback100Ipv6 address 2001:DB8:128::2/128 I interface GigabitEthernet1/0ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64!router bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 !address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2I128

D.

Ipv6 unicast-routing Ipv6 cef Iinterface Loopback100 ipv6 address 2001: DB8:128::2/128 !interface GigabitEthernet1/0 ipv6 address 2001:DB8:1::2/64 irouter bgp 65002 no bgp default ipv4-unicast neighbor 2001: DB8:1::1 remote-as 65001 !address-family ipv6 network 2001:DB8:128::2/128 neighbor 2001:DB8:1::1 activate

Question 23

:586

While BGP internet routes are redistributed to a lower class of router via RIP. packets are being dropped and routes are failing to be distributed in RIP. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Use OSPF instead of RIP to accept all BGP routes.

B.

Use the input-queue command to prevent the loss of packets.

C.

Use WFQ in the output queue of the high-performance router.

D.

Use RIP V2 to be able to use classless networks from BGP

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured BGP and wants to select the path from 10.77.255.57 as the best path instead

of current best path. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the current best path

B.

Configure higher MED to select as the best path

C.

Configure AS_PATH prepend for the desired best path

D.

Configure lower LOCAL_PREF to select as the best path

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit R2 can reach Loopback222, but R1 SW1 and PC1 cannot communicate with 172.16.222 254 R1 and R2 configurations are shown here

Which EIGRP configuration command resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

R2(config-router) # redistribute static

B.

R1(conftg-router)# network 172.16.222.254 0.0.0.0

C.

R1 (config-router)# network 172.16.222.264 255.255.255.255

D.

R1(config-router)# redistribute static

Question 26

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action makes 10.1.3.2 the feasible successor to reach 10. 200. 1 0/24 for location S42T447E33F95?

Options:

A.

Increase path bandwidth lower than 1011 2 and lower than 1012 2 between RtrA and the destination

B.

Increase path bandwidth higher than 10.1 2 2 and lower than 101.1.2 between RtrA and the destination.

C.

Increase path bandwidth higher than 1011 2 and lower than 1012 2 between RtrA and the destination

D.

Increase path bandwidth higher than 10.1 2 2 and higher than 10.1.1.2 between RtrA and the destination

Question 27

:588

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must filter prefixes that originate from AS65412. but it is not working correctty. Which configuration must the engineer apply to R1 to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 28

What is LDP label binding?

Options:

A.

neighboring router with label

B.

source prefix with label

C.

destination prefix with label

D.

two routers with label distribution session

Question 29

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel to establish an EIGRP neighbor to a remote router. The other tunnel endpoint is already configured. After applying the configuration as shown, the tunnel started flapping. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Stop sending a route matching the tunnel destination across the tunnel.

B.

Modify the network command to use the Tunne10 Interface netmask.

C.

Advertise the Loopback0 interface from R2 across the tunnel.

D.

Readdress the IP network on the Tunne10 on both routers using the /31 netmask.

Question 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPinterface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

B.

router ospf 1interface Ethernet1ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0interface Ethernet2ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

C.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0network 10.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

D.

router ospf 1 vrf CCNPnetwork 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Question 31

What is a function of an end device configured with DHCPv6 guard?

Options:

A.

If it is configured as a server, only prefix assignments are permitted.

B.

If it is configured as a relay agent, only prefix assignments are permitted.

C.

If it is configured as a client, messages are switched regardless of the assigned role.

D.

If it is configured as a client, only DHCP requests are permitted.

Question 32

How is VPN routing information distributed in an MPLS network?

Options:

A.

The top level of the customer data packet directs it to the correct CE device

B.

It is established using VPN IPsec peers.

C.

It is controlled using of VPN target communities.

D.

It is controlled through the use of RD.

Question 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be configured to make VRF CCNP work?

Options:

A.

interface Loopback0vrf forwarding CCNP

B.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0

C.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0vrf forwarding CCNP

D.

interface Loopback0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0ip vrf forwarding CCNP

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is troubleshooting a time synchronization problem for the router time to another Cisco IOS XE-based device that has recently undergone hardening. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Allow NTP in the ingress ACL on 10.1.225.40 by permitting UDP destined to port 123.

B.

Ensure that he CPE router has a valid route to 10.1.255. 40 for NTP and rectify if not reachable.

C.

NTP service is disabled and must be enabled on 10.1.225.40.

D.

Allow NTP in the ingress ACL on 10.1.255.40 by permitting TCP destined to port 123.

Question 35

A network administrator is trying to access a branch router using TACACS+ username and password credentials, but the administrator cannot log in to the router because the WAN connectivity is down. The branch router has following AAA configuration:

Which command will resolve this problem when WAN connectivity is down?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local

B.

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ enable

C.

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ console

D.

aaa authentication login console group tacacs+ enable

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish multipoint GRE tunnels between hub router R6 and branch routers R1, R2, and R3. Which configuration accomplishes this task on R1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

The security department recently installed a monitoring device between routers R3 and R5, which a loss of network connectivity for users connected to R5. Troubleshooting revealed that the monitoring device cannot forward multicast packets. The team already updated R5 with the correct configuration. Which configuration must be implemented on R3 to resolve the problem by ensuring R3 as the DR for the R3-R5 segment?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.

When the FastEthemet0/1 goes down, the route to 172.29.0 0/16 via 192.168.253 2 is not installed in the RIB. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure reported distance greater than the feasible distance

B.

Configure feasible distance greater than the successor's feasible distance.

C.

Configure reported distance greater than the successor's feasible distance.

D.

Configure feasible distance greater than the reported distance

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer applied filter on R1 The interface flapped between R1 and R2 and cleaning the BGP session did not restore the BGP session and failed Which action must the engineer take to restore the BGP session from R2 to R1?

Options:

A.

Apply the IPv6 traffic filter in the outbound direction on the interface

B.

ICMPv6 must be permitted by the IPv6 traffic filter

C.

Enable the BGP session, which went down when the session was cleared.

D.

Swap the source and destination IP addresses in the IPv6 traffic filter

Question 40

Which technique removes the outermost label of an MPLS-tagged packet before the packet is forwarded to an adjacent LER?

Options:

A.

label swap

B.

explicit-null

C.

label imposition

D.

PHP

Question 41

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 42

The network administrator configured R1 to authenticate Telnet connections based on Cisco ISE using TACACS+. ISE has been configured with an IP address of 192.168.1.5 and with a network device pointing toward R1(192.168.1.1) with a shared secret password of Cisco123.

The administrator cannot authenticate to R1 based on ISE. Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

ip tacacs-server host 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123

B.

line vty 0 4login authentication TAC-SERV

C.

line vty 0 4login authentication telnet

D.

tacacs-server host 192.168.1.5 key Cisco123

Question 43

Which routing protocol is used by the PE router to advertise routes to a CE router without redistribution or static after removing the RD tag from the P router?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

OSPF

C.

BGPIPv4

D.

MP-BGP

Question 44

configuration on the hub router meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

interface Tunnel0tunnel mode gre multipoint

B.

interface Tunnel0 tunnel mode dvmrp

C.

interface Tunnel0 tunnel mode ipsec ipv4

D.

interface Tunnel0 tunnel mode ip

Question 45

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a LAN-to-LAN IPsec VPN between R1 and the remote router. Which IPsec

Phase 1 configuration must the engineer use for the local router?

Options:

A.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash shagroup 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 200.1.1.3

B.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 200.1.1.3

C.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123 address 199.1.1.1

D.

crypto isakmp policy 5authentication pre-shareencryption 3deshash md5group 2!crypto isakmp key cisco123! address 199.1.1.1

Question 46

Refer to the exhibit.

A customer reports that user traffic of bank XYZ to the AAA server is not using the primary path via the R3-R2 link. The network team observes:

No fiber is cut on links R2 and R3.

As101 and AS 201 routers established BGP peering.

Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 47

R1 cannot receive the R2 Interfaces with individual prefixes. What must be reconfigured to advertise R2 Interfaces to R1?

Options:

A.

EIGRP process on R2 by removing the stub command Keyword summary

B.

interface FastEthernet0/1 on R2 with an EIGRP summary for all three loopback prefixes

C.

EIGRP process on R2 with the command stub summary receive-only

D.

ElGRP process on R2 with the command stub summary connected

Question 48

Refer to the Exhibit.

R1 and R2 use IGP protocol to route traffic between AS 100 and AS 200 despite being configured to use BGP. Which action resolves the issue and ensures the use of BGP?

Options:

A.

Configure distance to 100 under the EIGRP process of R1 and R2.

B.

Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100 and AS 200.

C.

Remove distance commands under BGP AS 100.

D.

Configure distance to 100 under the OSPF process of R1 and R2

Question 49

What is a function of IPv6 Source Guard?

Options:

A.

It works with address glean or ND to find existing addresses.

B.

It inspects ND and DHCP packets to build an address binding table.

C.

It denies traffic from known sources and allocated addresses.

D.

It notifies the ND protocol to inform hosts if the traffic is denied by it.

Question 50

Refer to the exhibit.

The R1 OSPF neighbor is not receiving type 5 external LSAs for 132.108.2.0/24 and 132.108.3.0/24 networks. Which configuration command resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.0.0 0.0.1.255

B.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.0.0 0.0.3.255

C.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.2.0 0.0.0.255

D.

access-list 1 permit 132.108.4.0 0.0.3.255

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer noticed that the router log messages do not have any information about when the event occurred. Which action should the engineer take when enabling service time stamps to improve the logging functionality at a granular level?

Options:

A.

Configure the debug uptime option

B.

Configure the msec option

C.

Configure the timezone option

D.

Configure the tog uptime option

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit EIGRP adjacency between router A and router C is not working as expected Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two )

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Question 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures router A to mark all inside to outside traffic from network 192 168 1 0, except from host 192 168 1 1. with critical IP precedence. The policy did not work as expected Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 54

The network administrator configured CoPP so that all HTTP and HTTPS traffic from the administrator device located at 172.16 1.99 toward the router CPU is limited to 500 kbps. Any traffic that exceeds this limit must be dropped.

access-list 100 permit ip host 172.16.1.99 any

!

class-map CM-ADMIN

match access-group 100

!

policy-map PM-COPP

class CM-ADMIN

police 500000 conform-action transmit

!

interface E0/0

service-policy input PM-COPP

CoPP failed to capture the desired traffic and the CPU load is getting higher.

Which two configurations resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

interface E0/0no service-policy input PM-COPP!control-planeservice-policy input PM-COPP

B.

policy-map PM-COPPclass CM-ADMINno police 500000 conform-action transmitpolice 500 conform-action transmit!control-planeservice-policy input PM-COPP

C.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 80

D.

no access-list 100access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 80access-list 100 permit tcp host 172.16.1.99 any eq 443

E.

policy-map PM-COPPclass CM-ADMINno police 500000 conform-action transmitpolice 500 conform-action transmit

Question 55

Refer to the exhibit. When an FTP client attempts to use passive FTP to connect to the FTP server, the file transfers fail Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure active FTP traffic.

B.

Modify FTP-SERVER access list to remove established at the end.

C.

Modify traffic filter FTP-SERVER in to the outbound direction.

D.

Configure to permit TCP ports higher than 1023.

Question 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Which policy configuration on R1 forwards any traffic that is sourced from the 192 168 130 0'24 network to R2?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure host IP address in access-list 16

B.

Configure SNMPv3 on the router

C.

Configure SNMP authentication on the router

D.

Configure a valid SNMP community string

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures a router to stop using a particular default route if the DNS server 8.8.8.8 is not reachable through that route. However, this configuration did not work as desired and the default route still works even if the DNS server 8.8.8 8 is unreachable. Which two configuration changes resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure two static routes for the 8.8.8.8/32 destination to match the IP SLA probe for each ISP.

B.

Associate every IP SLA probe with the proper WAN address of the router.

C.

Reference the proper exit interfaces along with the next hops in both static default routes.

D.

Use a separate track object to reference the existing IP SLA 1 probe for every static route.

E.

Use a separate IP SLA probe and track object for every static route

Question 59

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is provisioning end-to-end traffic service for two different enterprise networks with these requirements

The OSPF process must differ between customers on HQ and Branch office routers, and adjacencies should come up instantly.

The enterprise networks are connected with overlapping networks between HO and a branch office

Which configuration meets the requirements for a customer site?

A

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 60

Which two technologies optimize MPLS infrastructure using bandwidth protection services when experiencing slow response7 (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

IPLFA

B.

MPLS OAM

C.

VPLS

D.

SO-MPLS

E.

Fast-Rwoute

Question 61

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of applying this configuration?

Options:

A.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any other device.

B.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any other device.

C.

The router cannot form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

D.

The router can form BGP neighborships with any device that is matched by the access list named “BGP”.

Question 62

Refer to the exhibit.

After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both

spoke-to-spoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3

B.

Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.

C.

Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3

D.

Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.

E.

Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3

Question 63

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

Options:

A.

multi-paths eibgp 2

B.

maximum-paths 2

C.

Maximum-paths ibgp 2

D.

multi-paths 2

Question 64

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN device types from me left onto the definitions on the right.

Options:

Question 65

Which is statement about IPv6 inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It teams and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

C.

It teams and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

D.

It team and secures binding for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to generate a summary route in OSPF for network 10.0.0.0/8, but the

summary route does not show up in the routing table. Why is the summary route missing?

Options:

A.

The summary-address command is used only for summarizing prefixes between areas.

B.

The summary route is visible only in the OSPF database, not in the routing table.

C.

There is no route for a subnet inside 10.0.0.0/8, so the summary route is not generated.

D.

The summary route is not visible on this router, but it is visible on other OSPF routers in the same area.

Question 67

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from

the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the credentials from the left onto the remote login information on the right to resolve a failed login attempt to vtys. Not all credentials are uf SLA by defining frequency and schedulingsed

Options:

Question 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

Options:

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

Question 70

While troubleshooting connectivity issues to a router, these details are noticed:

Standard pings to all router interfaces, including loopbacks, are successful.

Data traffic is unaffected.

SNMP connectivity is intermittent.

SSH is either slow or disconnects frequently.

Which command must be configured first to troubleshoot this issue?

Options:

A.

show policy-map control-plane

B.

show policy-map

C.

show interface | inc drop

D.

show ip route

Question 71

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to block the route to 192.168.2.2 from the routing table by using the

configuration that is shown. The route is still present in the routing table as an OSPF route. Which action blocks the route?

Options:

A.

Use an extended access list instead of a standard access list.

B.

Change sequence 10 in the route-map command from permit to deny.

C.

Use a prefix list instead of an access list in the route map.

D.

Add this statement to the route map: route-map RM-OSPF-DL deny 20.

Question 72

While working with software images, an engineer observes that Cisco DNA Center cannot upload its software image directly from the device. Why is the image not uploading?

Options:

A.

The device must be resynced to Cisco DNA Center.

B.

The software image for the device is in install mode.

C.

The device has lost connectivity to Cisco DNA Center.

D.

The software image for the device is in bundle mode

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?

Options:

A.

Pop the label

B.

Impose the label

C.

Include the EXP bit

D.

Exclude the EXP bit

Question 74

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Question 75

Refer to the exhibit.

The output of the trace route from R5 shows a loop in the network. Which configuration

prevents this loop?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 76

Which label operations are performed by a label edge router?

Options:

A.

SWAP and POP

B.

SWAP and PUSH

C.

PUSH and PHP

D.

PUSH and POP

Question 77

Which protocol is used to determine the NBMA address on the other end of a tunnel when mGRE is used?

Options:

A.

NHRP

B.

IPsec

C.

MP-BGP

D.

OSPF

Question 78

Which two protocols can cause TCP starvation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

TFTP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

FTP

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?

Options:

A.

Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.

B.

Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.

C.

Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the globalconfiguration.

D.

Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration

Question 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols, and nowPC2 PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. What are the two solutions to fix the problem? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Filter RIP routes back into RIP when redistributing into RIP in R2

B.

Filter OSPF routes into RIP FROM EIGRP when redistributing into RIP in R2.

C.

Filter all routes except RIP routes when redistributing into EIGRP in R2.

D.

Filter RIP AND OSPF routes back into OSPF from EIGRP when redistributing into OSPF in R2

E.

Filter all routes except EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF in R3.

Question 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is user authentication being rejected?

Options:

A.

The TACACS+ server expects “user”, but the NT client sends “domain/user”.

B.

The TACACS+ server refuses the user because the user is set up for CHAP.

C.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is in the local database.

D.

The TACACS+ server is down, and the user is not in the local database.

Question 82

What is the output of the following command:

show ip vrf

Options:

A.

Show's default RD values

B.

Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF

C.

Show's routing protocol information associated with a VRF.

D.

Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF

Question 83

Which method changes the forwarding decision that a router makes without first changing the routing table or influencing the IP data plane?

Options:

A.

nonbroadcast multiaccess

B.

packet switching

C.

policy-based routing

D.

forwarding information base

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit.

After redistribution is enabled between the routing protocols; PC2, PC3, and PC4 cannot reach PC1. Which action can the engineer take to solve the issue so that all the PCs are reachable?

Options:

A.

Set the administrative distance 100 under the RIP process on R2.

B.

Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from OSPF to EIGRP.

C.

Filter the prefix 10.1.1.0/24 when redistributed from RIP to EIGRP.

D.

Redistribute the directly connected interfaces on R2.

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP SLA was configured on router R1 that allows the default route to be modified in the event that Fa0/0 loses reachability with the router R3 Fa0/0 interface. The route has changed to flow through

router R2. Which debug command is used to troubleshoot this issue?

Options:

A.

debug ip flow

B.

debug ip sla error

C.

debug ip routing

D.

debug ip packet

Question 86

After some changes in the routing policy, it is noticed that the router in AS 45123 is being used as a transit AS router for several service provides. Which configuration ensures that the branch router in AS 45123 advertises only the local networks to all SP neighbors?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 87

Drag and drop the operations from the left onto the locations where the operations are performed on the right.

Options:

Question 88

Refer to the following output:

Router#show ip nhrp detail

10.1.1.2/8 via 10.2.1.2, Tunnel1 created 00:00:12, expire 01:59:47

TypE. dynamic, Flags: authoritative unique nat registered used

NBMA address: 10.12.1.2

What does the authoritative flag mean in regards to the NHRP information?

Options:

A.

It was obtained directly from the next-hop server.

B.

Data packets are process switches for this mapping entry.

C.

NHRP mapping is for networks that are local to this router.

D.

The mapping entry was created in response to an NHRP registration request.

E.

The NHRP mapping entry cannot be overwritten.

Question 89

An engineer is configuring a network and needs packets to be forwarded to an interface for any destination address that is not in the routing table. What should be configured to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

set ip next-hop

B.

set ip default next-hop

C.

set ip next-hop recursive

D.

set ip next-hop verify-availability

Question 90

Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

SCTP

C.

TCP

D.

RDP

Question 91

Refer to the exhibit.

A junior engineer updated a branch router configuration. Immediately after the change, the engineer receives calls from the help desk that branch personnel cannot reach any network destinations. Which configuration restores service and continues to block 10.1.1.100/32?

Options:

A.

route-map FILTER-IN deny 5

B.

ip prefix-list 102 seq 15 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32

C.

ip prefix-list 102 seq 5 permit 0.0.0.0/32 le 32

D.

route-map FILTER-IN permit 20

Question 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP

server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

Options:

A.

Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool

B.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value

C.

Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value

D.

Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

The ACL is placed on the inbound Gigabit 0/1 interface of the router. Host

192.168.10.10cannot SSH to host 192.168.100.10 even though the flow is permitted. Which action

resolves the issue without opening full access to this router?

Options:

A.

Move the SSH entry to the beginning of the ACL

B.

Temporarily move the permit ip any any line to the beginning of the ACL to see if the flow works

C.

Temporarily remove the ACL from the interface to see if the flow works

D.

Run the show access-list FILTER command to view if the SSH entry has any hit statistic associated with it

Question 94

Refer to the exhibit.

R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

Options:

A.

R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.

B.

Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.

C.

In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.

D.

In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.

Question 95

Refer to the exhibit.

Users in the branch network of 2001:db8:0:4::/64 report that they cannot access the Internet. Which command is issued in IPv6 router EIGRP 100 configuration mode to solve this issue?

Options:

A.

Issue the eigrp stub command on R1

B.

Issue the no neighbor stub command on R2.

C.

Issue the eigrp command on R2.

D.

Issue the no eigrp stub command on R1.

Question 96

What is a function of IPv6 ND inspection?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

Question 97

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about R1 is true?

Options:

A.

OSPF redistributes RIP routes only if they have a tag of one.

B.

RIP learned routes are distributed to OSPF with a tag value of one.

C.

R1 adds one to the metric for RIP learned routes before redistributing to OSPF.

D.

RIP routes are redistributed to OSPF without any changes.

Question 98

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

Options:

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Question 99

Which option is the best for protecting CPU utilization on a device?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

COPP

C.

ICMP redirects

D.

ICMP unreachable messages

Question 100

Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 101

Which command is used to check IP SLA when an interface is suspected to receive lots of traffic with options?

Options:

A.

show track

B.

show threshold

C.

show timer

D.

show delay

Question 102

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when

remote users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?

Options:

A.

Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.

B.

Enter the terminal monitor exec command.

C.

Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.

D.

Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.

Question 103

Refer to the exhibit.

Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?

Options:

A.

E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

B.

E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF

C.

only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF

D.

only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1

Question 104

Refer to the exhibit.

In which circumstance does the BGP neighbor remain in the idle condition?

Options:

A.

if prefixes are not received from the BGP peer

B.

if prefixes reach the maximum limit

C.

if a prefix list is applied on the inbound direction

D.

if prefixes exceed the maximum limit

Question 105

Which protocol does VRF-Lite support?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

ODR

C.

EIGRP

D.

IGRP

Question 106

Refer to the exhibits.

Phase-3 tunnels cannot be established between spoke-to-spoke in DMVPN. Which two

commands are missing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The ip nhrp redirect command is missing on the spoke routers.

B.

The ip nhrp shortcut command is missing on the spoke routers.

C.

The ip nhrp redirect commands is missing on the hub router.

D.

The ip nhrp shortcut commands is missing on the hub router.

E.

The ip nhrp map command is missing on the hub router.

Question 107

Refer the exhibit.

Which action resolves intermittent connectivity observed with the SNMP trap

packets?

Options:

A.

Decrease the committed burst Size of the mgmt class map

B.

Increase the CIR of the mgmt class map

C.

Add a new class map to match TCP traffic

D.

Add one new entry in the ACL 120 to permit the UDP port 161

Question 108

Which two methods use IPsec to provide secure connectivity from the branch office to the headquarters office? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

MPLS VPN

C.

Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI)

D.

SSL VPN

E.

PPPoE

Question 109

During the maintenance window an administrator accidentally deleted the Telnet-related

configuration that permits a Telnet connection from the inside network (Eth0/0) to the outside of the networking between Friday – Sunday night hours only. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 110

Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?

Options:

A.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

B.

It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

C.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.

D.

It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.

Question 111

Drag and drop the MPLS VPN concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

Question 112

Which security feature can protect DMVPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

IPsec

B.

TACACS+

C.

RTBH

D.

RADIUS

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured VRF lite for customer A. The technician at the remote site misconfigured VRF on the router. Which configuration will resolve connectivity for both sites of customer_a?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 114

Refer to the exhibit.

AAA server 10.1.1.1 is configured with the default authentication and accounting settings, but the switch cannot communicate with the server Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Match the authentication port

B.

Match the accounting port

C.

Correct the timeout value.

D.

Correct the shared secret.

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator noticed that after a change was made on R1, the timestamps on the system logs did not match the clock. What is the reason for this error?

Options:

A.

An authentication error with the NTP server results in an incorrect timestamp.

B.

The keyword localtime is not defined on the timestamp service command.

C.

The NTP server is in a different time zone.

D.

The system clock is set incorrectly to summer-time hours.

Question 116

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to redistribute OSPF to BGP, but not all of the routes are

redistributed. What is the reason for this issue?

Options:

A.

By default, only internal routes and external type 1 routes are redistributed into BGP

B.

Only classful networks are redistributed from OSPF to BGP

C.

BGP convergence is slow, so the route will eventually be present in the BGP table

D.

By default, only internal OSPF routes are redistributed into BGP

Question 117

Which statement about route distinguishers in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

B.

Route distinguishers are used for label bindings.

C.

Route distinguishers make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

D.

Route distinguishers define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router.

Question 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration denies Telnet traffic to router 2 from 198A:0:200C::1/64?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 119

An engineer configured a leak-map command to summarize EIGRP routes and advertise specifically loopback 0 with an IP of 10.1.1.1.255.255.255.252 along with the summary route. After finishing configuration, the customer complained not receiving summary route with specific loopback address. Which two configurations will fix it? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0.0.0.0.3.

B.

Configure access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.1.0.0.0.252.

C.

Configure access-list 1 and match under route-map Leak-Route.

D.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 10 and match access-list 1.

E.

Configure route-map Leak-Route permit 20.

Question 120

Which two statements about VRF-Lite configurations are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They support the exchange of MPLS labels

B.

Different customers can have overlapping IP addresses on different VPNs

C.

They support a maximum of 512.000 routes

D.

Each customer has its own dedicated TCAM resources

E.

Each customer has its own private routing table.

F.

They support IS-IS

Question 121

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has successfully set up a floating static route from the BRANCH router to the HQ network using HQ_R1 as the primary default gateway When the g0/0 goes down on HQ_R1, the branch network cannot reach the HQ network 192.168.20.0/24. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R3(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R3(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 192.168.100.2

C.

HQ R3(config)# Ip sla responderHQ R3(config)# Ip sla responder Icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# Ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sta)# Icmp-echo 192.168.100.1

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

BGP and EIGRP are mutually redistributed on R3, and EIGRP and OSPF are mutually redistributed on R1. Users report packet loss and interruption of service to applications hosted onthe 10.1.1.0724 prefix. An engineer tested the link from R3 to R4 with no packet loss present but has noticed frequent routing changes on R3 when running the debug ip route command. Which action stabilizes the service?

Options:

A.

Tag the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix and deny the prefix from being redistributed into OSPF on R1.

B.

Repeat the test from R4 using ICMP ping on the local 10.1.1.0/24 prefix, and fix any Layer 2 errors on the host or switch side of the subnet. ^ C. Place an OSPF distribute-list outbound on R3 to block the 10.1.10/24 prefix from being advertised back to R3.

C.

Reduce frequent OSPF SPF calculations on R3 that cause a high CPU and packet loss on traffic traversing R3.

Question 123

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions should be taken to access the server? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Modify the access list to add a second line of permit ip any

B.

Modify the access list to deny the route to 192.168.2.2.

C.

Modify distribute list seq 10 to permit the route to 192.168.2.2.

D.

Add a sequence 20 in the route map to permit access list 1.

E.

Add a floating static route to reach to 192.168.2.2 with administrative distance higher than OSPF

Question 124

Which feature drops packets if the source address is not found in the snooping table?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Source Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

Binding Table Recovery

Question 125

What statement about route distinguishes in an MPLS network is true?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes make a unique VPNv4 address across the MPLS network.

B.

Route distinguishers allow multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the edge router.

C.

Route distinguishes are used for label bindings

D.

Route distinguishes define which prefixes are imported and exported on the edge router

Question 126

Refer to the exhibit.

SanFrancisco and Boston routers are choosing slower links to reach each other despite the direct links being up Which configuration fixes the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 127

What does IPv6 Source Guard utilize to determine if IPv6 source addresses should be forwarded?

Options:

A.

ACE

B.

ACLS

C.

DHCP

D.

Binding Table

Question 128

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configured redistribution on an ASBR to reach to all WAN networks but failed Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

The route map must have the keyword prefix-list to evaluate the prefix list entries

B.

The OSPF process must have a metric when redistributing prefixes from EIGRP.

C.

The route map EIGRP->OSPF must have the 10.0.106.0/24 entry to exist in one of the three prefix lists to pass

D.

EIGRP must redistribute the 10.0.106.0/24 route instead of using the network statement

Question 129

Refer to the exhibit. Which action restores the routes from neighbors while still filtering 1.1.1.0/24?

Options:

A.

Add a second line in the access list to permit any.

B.

Modify the route map to permit the access list instead of deny it

C.

Modify the access list to deny instead of permit it.

D.

Add a second sequence in the route map permit 20

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is being monitored using SNMP and monitoring devices are getting only partial information. What action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured exceeded limit for SNMP.

B.

Modify the access list to include snmptrap.

C.

Modify the CoPP policy to increase the configured CIR limit for SNMP.

D.

Modify the access list to add a second line to allow udp any any eq snmp

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured route advertisement to a remote low resources router to use only the default route to reach any network but failed. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Change the direction of the distribute-list command from out to in.

B.

Remove the line with the sequence number 5 from the prefix list.

C.

Remove the prefix keyword from the distribute-list command.

D.

Remove the line with the sequence number 10 from the prefix list.

Question 132

An engineer configured SNMP notifications sent to the management server using authentication and encrypting data with DES. An error in the response PDU is received as "UNKNOWNUSERNAME. WRONGDIGEST". Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authPriv .

B.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

C.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

D.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authPriv.

Question 133

Refer to the exhibit.

A user has set up an IP SLA probe to test if a non-SLA host web server on IP address 10.1.1.1 accepts HTTP sessions prior to deployment. The probe is failing. Which action should the network administrator recommend for the probe to succeed?

Options:

A.

Re-issue the ip sla schedule command.

B.

Add icmp-echo command for the host.

C.

Add the control disable option to the tcp connect.

D.

Modify the ip sla schedule frequency to forever.

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator successfully logs into R1 but cannot access privileged mode commands. What should be configured to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization reverse-access

B.

secret cisco123! at the end of the username command instead of password cisco123!

C.

matching password on vty lines as cisco123!

D.

enable secret or enable password commands to enter into privileged mode

Question 135

Refer to the exhibit.

PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the terminal server. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit.

A network is under a cyberattack. A network engineer connected to R1 by SSH and enabled the terminal monitor via SSH session to find the source and destination of the attack. The session was flooded with messages, which made it impossible for the engineer to troubleshoot the issue. Which command resolves this issue on R1?

Options:

A.

no terminal monitor

B.

(config)#terminal no monitor

C.

#terminal no monitor

D.

(config)#no terminal monitor

Question 137

Clients on ALS2 receive IPv4 and IPv6 addresses but clients on ALS1 receive only IPv4 addresses and not IPv6 addresses. Which action on DSW1 allows clients on ALS1 to receive IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 helper address 2002:404:404::404:404

B.

Configure DSW1(dhcp-config)#default-router 2002:A04:A01::A04:A01

C.

Configure DSW1(config)#ipv6 route 2002:404:404:404:404/128 FastEthernet1/0

D.

Configure DSW1(config-if)#ipv6 dhcp relay destination 2002:404:404::404:404 GigabitEthernet1/2

E.

Option A

F.

Option B

G.

Option C

Question 138

An engineer must configure a Cisco router to initiate secure connections from the router to other devices in the network but kept failing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure a source port for the SSH connection to initiate

B.

Configure a TACACS+ server and enable it

C.

Configure transport input ssh command on the console

D.

Configure a domain name

E.

Configure a crypto key to be generated

Question 139

Which IGPs are supported by the MPLS LDP autoconfiguration feature?

Options:

A.

RIPv2 and OSPF

B.

OSPF and EIGRP

C.

OSPF and ISIS

D.

ISIS and RIPv2

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured BGP between routers R1 and R3 The BOP peers cannot establish neighbor adjacency to be able to exchange routes. Which configuration resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

R3router bgp 6502address-family ipv6neighbor AB01:2011:7:100::1 activate

B.

R1router bgp 6501address-family ipv6neighbor AB01:2011:7:100;:3 activate

C.

R3router bgp 6502neighbor AB01:2011:7:100::1 ebgp-muttlhop 255

D.

R1router bgp 6501 neighborAB01:2011:7:100::3ebgp-multihop255

Question 141

Which configuration feature should be used to block rogue router advertisements instead of using the IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature?

Options:

A.

VACL blocking broadcast frames from nonauthorized hosts

B.

PVLANs with promiscuous ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

C.

PVLANs with community ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes

D.

IPv4 ACL blocking route advertisements from nonauthorized hosts

Question 142

What are two functions of IPv6 Source Guard? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses the populated binding table for allowing legitimate traffic.

B.

It works independent from IPv6 neighbor discovery.

C.

It denies traffic from unknown sources or unallocated addresses.

D.

It denies traffic by inspecting neighbor discovery packets for specific pattern.

E.

It blocks certain traffic by inspecting DHCP packets for specific sources.

Question 143

An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?

Options:

A.

LOCAL_PREF

B.

MED

C.

WEIGHT

D.

AS-PATH

Question 144

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer wanted to set a tag of 30 to route 10 1.80.65/32 but it failed How is the issue fixed?

Options:

A.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 30 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

B.

Modify route-map ospf-to-eigrp permit 10 and match prefix-list ccnp2.

C.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 le 24

D.

Modify prefix-list ccnp3 to add 10.1.64.0/20 ge 32

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the Customer Edge router (AS 64511) to send only summarized routes toward ISP-1 (AS 100) and ISP-2 (AS 200).

router bgp 64511

network 172.16.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.21.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.22.0 mask 255.255.255.0

network 172.16.23.0 mask 255.255.255.0

aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0

After this configuration. ISP-1 and ISP-2 continue to receive the specific routes and the summary route. Which configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255.255.252.0 summary-only

B.

router bgp 64511neighbor 192.168.100.1 summary-onlyneighbor 192.168.200.2 summary-only

C.

interface E 0/0ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!interface E 0/1ip bgp suppress-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC!ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22 ge 24!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC

D.

ip prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC deny 172.16.20.0/22 ge 22ip prefix-list PL BLOCK SPECIFIC permit 172.16.20.0/22!route-map BLOCK_SPECIFIC permit 10match ip address prefix-list PL_BLOCK_SPECIFIC!router bgp 64511aggregate-address 172.16.20.0 255 255.252.0 suppress-map BLOCKSPECIFIC

Question 146

Exhibit:

Which action resolves the authentication problem?

Options:

A.

Configure the user name on the TACACS+ server

B.

Configure the UDP port 1812 to be allowed on the TACACS+ server

C.

Configure the TCP port 49 to be reachable by the router

D.

Configure the same password between the TACACS+ server and router.

Question 147

Exhibit:

An engineer configured R2 and R5 as route reflectors and noticed that not all routes are sent to R1 to advertise to the eBGP peers. Which iBGP routers must be configured as route reflectors to advertise all routes to restore reachability across all networks?

Options:

A.

R1 and R4

B.

R1 and R5

C.

R4 and R5

D.

R2 and R5

Question 148

An engineer configured Reverse Path Forwarding on an interface and noticed that the routes are dropped when a route lookup fails on that interface for a prefix that is available in the routing table Which interface configuration resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via rx

B.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via any

C.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via allow-default

D.

ip verify unicast source reachable-via 12-src

Question 149

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator can see the DHCP discovery packet in R1. but R2 is not replying to the DHCP request. The R1 related interface is configured with the DHCP helper address. If the PC is directly connected to the FaO/1 interface on R2, the DHCP server assigns as IP address from the DHCP pool to the PC. Which two commands resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

service dhcp-relay command on R1

B.

ip dhcp option 82 command on R2

C.

service dhcp command on R1

D.

ip dhcp relay information enable command on R1

E.

ip dhcp relay information trust-all command on R2

Question 150

Refer to the exhibit.

A company with autonomous system number AS65401 has obtained IP address block 209.165.200.224/27 fro, ARIN. The company needed more IP addresses and was assigned block209.165.202.128/27 from ISP2. An engineer is ISP1 reports they are receiving ISP2 routes from AS65401. Which configuration onR1 resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 151

When determining if a system is capable of support, what is the minimum time spacing required for a BFD control packet to receive once a control packet is arrived?

Options:

A.

Desired Min TX Interval

B.

Detect Mult

C.

Required Min RX Interval

D.

Required Min Echo RX Interval

Question 152

Refer to the exhibit.

Troubleshoot and ensure that branch B only ever uses the MPLS B network to reach HQ. Which action achieves this requirement?

Options:

A.

Introduce an AS path filter on branch A routers so that only local prefixes are advertised into BGP

B.

increase the local preference for all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the local preferences used on the MPLS A network

C.

Introduce AS path prepending on the branch A MPLS B network connection so that any HQ advertisements from branch A toward the MPLS B network are prepended three times

D.

Modify the weight of all HQ prefixes received at branch B from the MPLS B network to be higher than the weights used on the MPLS A network

Question 153

Refer to the exhibit.

AS65510 iBGP is configured for directly connected neighbors. R4 cannot ping or traceroute network 192 168.100.0/24 Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure R4 as a route reflector server and configure R1 as a route reflector client

B.

Configure R1 as a route reflector server and configure R2 and R3 as route reflector clients

C.

Configure R4 as a route reflector server and configure R2 and R3 as route reflector clients.

D.

Configure R1 as a route reflector server and configure R4 as a route reflector client

Question 154

Refer to exhibit.

Routing protocols are mutually redistributed on R3 and R1. Users report intermittent connectivity to services hosted on the 10.1.1.0/24 prefix. Significant routing update changes are noticed on R3 when the show ip route profile

command is run. How must the services be stabilized?

Options:

A.

The issue with using BGP must be resolved by using another protocol and redistributing it into EIGRP on R3

B.

The routing loop must be fixed by reducing the admin distance of iBGP from 200 to 100 on R3

C.

The routing loop must be fixed by reducing the admin distance of OSPF from 110 to 80 on R3

D.

The issue with using iBGP must be fixed by running eBGP between R3 and R4

Question 155

Refer to the exhibits. An engineer filtered messages based on severity to minimize log messages. After applying the filter, the engineer noticed that it filtered required messages as well. Which action must the engineer take to resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Configure syslog level 2.

B.

Configure syslog level 3.

C.

Configure syslog level 4.

D.

Configure syslog level 5.

Question 156

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator enables DHCP snooping on the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X switch and configures the uplink port (Port-channel2) as a trusted port. Clients are not receiving an IP address, but when DHCP snooping is disabled, clients start receiving IP addresses. Which global command resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

No ip dhcp snooping information option

B.

ip dhcp snooping

C.

ip dhcp relay information trust portchannel2

D.

ip dhcp snooping trust

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1default-information originate

B.

router ospf 1network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

C.

router ospf 1redistribute connected 0.0.0.0

D.

router ospf 1redistribute static subnets

Question 158

Refer to Exhibit.

The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E0/0 interface. The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

Options:

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E0/0 interface by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E0/0 interface

Question 159

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully However the WLC is showing [ error "uncontactable" when the administrator tries to add it in Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?

Options:

A.

Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

B.

Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again.

C.

Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices.

D.

Copy the .pern file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

Question 160

An engineer needs dynamic routing between two routers and is unable to establish OSPF adjacency. The output of the show ip ospf neighbor command shows that the neighbor state is EXSTART/EXCHANGE. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

match the passwords

B.

match the hello timers

C.

match the MTUs

D.

match the network types

Question 161

What are two purposes of using IPv4 and VPNv4 address-family configurations in a Layer 3 MPLS VPN? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The VPNv4 address is used to advertise the MPLS VPN label.

B.

RD is prepended to the IPv4 route to make it unique.

C.

MP-BGP is used to allow overlapping IPv4 addresses between customers to advertisethrough the network.

D.

The IPv4 address is needed to tag the MPLS label.

E.

The VPNv4 address consists of a 64-bit route distinguisher that is prepended to the IPv4prefix.

Question 162

Refer to the exhibit.

The neighbor relationship is not coming up Which two configurations bring the adjacency up? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

NYrouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

B.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123

C.

NYinterface E 0/0no ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 Cisco123ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

D.

LAinterface E 0/0ip ospf authentication-key Cisco123

E.

LArouter ospf 1area 0 authentication message-digest

Question 163

How does an MPLS Layer 3 VPN function?

Options:

A.

set of sites use multiprotocol BGP at the customer site for aggregation

B.

multiple customer sites interconnect through service provider network to create secure tunnels between customer edge devices

C.

set of sites interconnect privately over the Internet for security

D.

multiple customer sites interconnect through a service provider network using customer edge to provider edge connectivity

Question 164

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has developed a Python script on the local Linux machine and is trying to transfer it to the router. However, the transfer fails. Which action resolves this issue?

Options:

A.

The SSH service must be enabled with the crypto key generate rsa command.

B.

The SCP service must be enabled with the ip scp server enable command.

C.

The Python interpreter must first be enabled with the guestshell enable command.

D.

The SSH access must be allowed on the VTY lines using the transport input ssh command.

Question 165

Which two protocols work in the control plane of P routers across the MPLS cloud? (choose two)

Options:

A.

LSP

B.

RSVP

C.

ECMP

D.

LDP

E.

MPLS OAM

Question 166

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer receives this error message when trying to access another router in-band from the serial interface connected to the console of R1. Which configuration is needed on R1 to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 167

Refer to the exhibit.

A client is concerned that passwords are visible when running this show archive log config all.

Which router configuration is needed to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#password encryption aes

B.

MASS-RTR(config)#aaa authentication arap

C.

MASS-RTR(config)#service password-encryption

D.

MASS-RTR(config-archive-log-cfg)#hidekeys

Question 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action resolves the adjacency issue?

Options:

A.

Match the hello interval timers.

B.

Configure the same EIGRP process IDs.

C.

Match the authentication keys.

D.

Configure the same autonomous system numbers.

Question 169

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in exstart state. How does the administrator fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers.

B.

Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers.

C.

Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.

D.

Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers.

Question 170

Refer to Exhibit.

Traffic from the branch network should route through HQ R1 unless the path is unavailable. An engineer tests this functionality by shutting down interface on the BRANCH router toward HQ_R1 router but 192.168.20.0/24 is no longer reachable from the branch router. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

HQ_R1(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R1(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

C.

HQ_R2(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R2(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 172.16.35.2

Question 171

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface configuration must be configured on the HUB router to enable MVPN with mGRE mode?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 172

Exhibit:

NTP is configured across the network infrastructure and Cisco DNA Center. An NTP issue was reported on the Cisco DNA Center at 17:15. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Check and resolve reachability between the WLC and the NTP server

B.

Reset the NTP server to resolve any synchronization issues for all devices

C.

Check and resolve reachability between Cisco DNA Center and the NTP server

D.

Check and configure NTP on the WLC and synchronize with Cisco DNA Center

Question 173

Refer to the exhibit.

All the serial between R1, R2, and R3 have the Same bandwidth. User on the 192.168.1.0/24 network report slow response times while they access resource on network 192.168.3.0/24. When a traceroute is run on the path. It shows that the packet is getting forwarded via R2 to R3 although the link between R1 and R3 is still up. What must the network administrator to fix the slowness?

Options:

A.

Change the Administrative Distance of EIGRP to 5.

B.

Add a static route on R1 using the next hop of R3.

C.

Remove the static route on R1.

D.

Redistribute theR1 route to EIGRP

Question 174

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is connected with R2 via GigabitEthernet0/0, and R2 cannot ping R1. What action will fix the issue?

Options:

A.

Fix route dampening configured on the router.

B.

Replace the SFP module because it is not supported.

C.

Fix IP Event Dampening configured on the interface.

D.

Correct the IP SLA probe that failed.

Question 175

A network administrator is tasked to permit http and https traffic only toward the internet from the User1 laptop to adhere to company’s security policy. The administrator can still ping to Which interface should the access list 101 be applied to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Interface G0/48 in the incoming direction

B.

Interface G0/0 in the outgoing direction.

C.

Interface S1/0 in the outgoing direction.

D.

Interface G0/0 in the incoming direction.

Question 176

Which Ipv6 first-hop security feature helps to minimize denial of service attacks?

Options:

A.

IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

DHCPv6 Guard

D.

IPv6 MAC address filtering

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 cannot establish an EIGRP adjacency. Which action establishes EIGRP adjacency?

Options:

A.

Remove the current autonomous system number on one of the routers and change to a different value.

B.

Remove the passive-interface command from the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

C.

Add the no auto-summary command to the R2 configuration so that it matches the R1 configuration.

D.

Add the passive-interface command to the R1 configuration so that it matches the R2 configuration.

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

An IPv6 network was newly deployed in the environment and the help desk reports that R3 cannot SSH to the R2s Loopback interface. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Modify line 10 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

B.

Remove line 60 from the access list.

C.

Modify line 30 of the access list to permit instead of deny.

D.

Remove line 70 from the access list.

Exam Detail
Vendor: Cisco
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Exam Code: 300-410
Last Update: Apr 16, 2025
300-410 Question Answers
Page: 1 / 45
Total 594 questions