Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured conrectly, and the expected routes are being exchanged among the routers. Which set of routes are leamed from neighbors and installed on router 2?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
What is a zero-day exploit?
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?
What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?
Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:
• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.
• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.
• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.
Which configuration set meets these requirements?
What is the put method within HTTP?
Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?
object
value
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?
How does encryption project the wireless network?
Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?
Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.
What is the first step to verify connectivity?
Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?
What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
How does frame switching function on a switch?
NO: 346
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?
Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a subnet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
What is the role of the root port in a switched network?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?
Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?
What is the function of northbound API?
What is a functionality of the control plane in the network?
What must be considered before deploying virtual machines?
Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?
Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.
Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are presented?
Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?
What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?
Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?
A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be enable a floating default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?
A)
B)
C)
D)
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.
What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?
What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?
Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wireless clients?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172.21.34.0/25 network that resides on R86. Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
What is a function of Layer 3 switches?
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?
A)
B)
C)
D)
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?
Refer to the exhibit. Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two)
What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSON schema?
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Refer to the exhibit.
Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
How does MAC learning function?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?
Which interface condition is occurring in this output?
How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:
handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections
minimizes consumption of public IP addresses
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
How does MAC learning function?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:
Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections
Minimizes consumption of public IP addresses
Which configuration meets the requirements?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/2 0
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network. Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?
How does MAC learning function?
Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?
Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
What are network endpoints?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
What is a benefit of VRRP?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
Refer to the Exhibit.
After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command provides this output?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Which option about JSON is true?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.
Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
Refer to the exhibit.
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
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