What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Refer to the exhibit.
R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
What is a DNS lookup operation?
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
Refer to exhibit.
Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
Which option about JSON is true?
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
What does physical access control regulate?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
What is a function of MAC address learning?
Refer to the exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit. The router R1 is in the process of being configured. Routers R2 and R3 are configured correctly for the new environment. Which two commands must be configured on R1 for PC1 to communicate to all PCs on the 10.10.10.0/24 network? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
Refer to the exhibit.
An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.
Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuring on switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Why implement VRRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?
A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?
What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN network? (Choose two.)
After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?
Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)
Which device separates networks by security domains?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.
Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?
Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.
It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two )
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.
Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
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In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the attacker.To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or implement Private VLANs.ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP request was not received. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2.Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can be used to mitigate this type of attack.
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CCNA 200-301 Dumps Full Questions - Exam Study Guide & Free 203
