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Free and Premium Nokia PDM_2002001060 Dumps Questions Answers

CPM Questions and Answers

Question 1

When should risk analysis be performed?

Options:

A.

Just before any major meeting with the client.

B.

On a regular basis prior to and throughout the project.

C.

Only when justified by the awareness of new risks becoming a possibility.

D.

When preparing the project plan.

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Question 2

The compilation and storage of lessons learned for a completed project can be used to:

Options:

A.

adjust the final project financials to reflect the cost benefits of this knowledge.

B.

determine the cost baseline and rollout plan for all future projects in the CT.

C.

highlight problems and determine potential risks in future similar project.

D.

complete employee performance evaluations for those who worked on the project.

Question 3

To meet the requirements of the project through effective contract management, it is best to:

Options:

A.

prepare a unique contract.

B.

use standard clauses in contracts.

C.

avoid using contractual documents.

D.

mix standard and unique clauses.

Question 4

Which data can be imported directly from 4C into PPR?

Options:

A.

GS cost baseline, materialized risk, GS cost EAC.

B.

GS and MBB actual costs, materialized risk, non conformance costs, sellable additional works.

C.

GS as sold cost estimate, risk contingency consumed, sellable additional works.

D.

GS cost EAC, budgeted risk, sub-contractor claims.

Question 5

Which of these key performance indicators (KPIs) supports the identification of possible cost overruns?

Options:

A.

Project cost adherence (PCA).

B.

Rollout accuracy (RA).

C.

Site invoice lead time (SILT).

D.

Project asset rotation days (PARD).

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT part of the IPM suite?

Options:

A.

Sales management.

B.

Site data management.

C.

Change management.

D.

Document management.

Question 7

Which of the following examples are effective results of a correctly performed root cause analysis?

Options:

A.

Missing method-of-procedure (MOP) and therefore no rollback procedures available for the site.

B.

Health and safety regulations were unclear to the Nokia team.

C.

Incorrect overtime booking.

D.

Gap in communication between the project team and the sales team.

Question 8

During which stage of risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?

Options:

A.

Identify risks.

B.

Plan risk responses.

C.

Qualitative risk analysis.

D.

Quantitative risk analysis.

Question 9

What obligations towards the F&C community does the cost and progress manager have in regards to costs?

Options:

A.

F&C rely on the accuracy of costs for both SOX control points and RRB reporting.

B.

F&C rely on the accuracy of project rollout information in order to plan equipment demand in Nelle.

C.

F&C rely on the accuracy of costs for calculation of incentive payouts.

D.

Cost and progress managers are solely responsible for costs and F&C are solely responsible for revenue.

Question 10

When a Customer Contract is not yet signed and a purchase order has not yet been received, in which circumstances can a service be subcontracted?

Options:

A.

If the value of the purchase order does not exceed the approved cost baseline.

B.

If an early ramp-up project (ERP) is approved.

C.

If the subcontractor agrees to receive their PO later, after the customer PO is issued.

D.

If there is a formal approval from the Project Manager.

Question 11

Which is not a factor in choosing a subcontractor?

Options:

A.

Complexity of requirements.

B.

Price competition.

C.

Competency.

D.

Personal relationship with management.

Question 12

The product line is unable to meet a software release committed timeline. Due to this delay, resources dedicated to the installation need to remain available for an additional month. Additionally, the project will be liable to pay penalties based on contract conditions. How should these extra costs be reported?

Options:

A.

Extra resources cost which will be booked via SvO with an accounting indicator relevant for resources caused NCC (Pre- or Post-P8), and penalties will be booked via SVO with an accounting indicator relevant for execution.

B.

Extra resources cost which will be booked via SvO with an accounting indicator relevant for product caused NCC (Pre- or Post-P8), and penalties will be part of the claim log.

C.

Both costs will be booked via SvO with an accounting indicator relevant for product caused NCC (Pre- or Post-P8).

D.

Both costs will be booked via SvO with an accounting indicator relevant for resources caused NCC.

Question 13

What activity is the final stage before input of the planned project costs to 4C?

Options:

A.

Receipt of customer purchase orders.

B.

Revision of the equipment delivery forecast.

C.

Updates to the rollout schedule.

D.

Joint analysis of the planned project costs by the project manager and cost and progress manager.

Question 14

What are the two key elements to calculate the project cost adherence (PCA)?

Options:

A.

Cost overrun of the period and total costs of sales of the period.

B.

Estimate at completion and cost baseline.

C.

Actual costs and the latest estimate in PRS.

D.

Estimated baseline and cost baseline.

Question 15

A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called:

Options:

A.

mitigation.

B.

deflection.

C.

avoidance.

D.

transfer.

Question 16

During project execution, a large number of changes are made to the project. The project manager should:

Options:

A.

wait until all changes are known and print out a new schedule.

B.

make approved changes as needed, but retain the schedule baseline.

C.

make only the changes approved by management.

D.

talk to management before any changes are made.

Question 17

In Nokia, what does PARD stands for?

Options:

A.

Program action required days.

B.

Project asset rotation days.

C.

Project action rotation days.

D.

Project asset required days.

Question 18

The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a:

Options:

A.

hierarchical structure of the identified resources.

B.

database showing the competences of the assigned resources.

C.

breakdown of scope by assigned resources.

D.

output of the process activity sequencing.

Question 19

What is the primary KPI generated from the Site Quality module of IPM?

Options:

A.

Rollout accuracy (RA).

B.

Project Site Quality Index (P-SQI).

C.

Site Invoice Lead Time (SILT).

D.

Telecom Implementation Lead Time (TILT).

Question 20

What of the following cost components is NOT included in the CBL?

Options:

A.

Non conformance costs.

B.

Sub-contracting costs.

C.

Risk contingency.

D.

Base costs.

Question 21

The risk contingency reserve is identified in which process?

Options:

A.

Estimate activity duration.

B.

Estimate costs.

C.

Determine cost baseline.

D.

Estimate activity resources.

Question 22

What is the impact if procurement renegotiates longer payment terms with our supplier?

Options:

A.

The project asset rotation days (PARD) will decrease.

B.

The cash flow of the project is positively influenced.

C.

The cash flow of the project is negatively influenced.

D.

The project asset rotation days (PARD) will increase.

Question 23

What is the best timing to review the estimate at completion (EAC)?

Options:

A.

Only during the planning phase, in order to anticipate all possible risks.

B.

Only during project closure, in order to consistently explain the project results.

C.

During the entire project lifecycle, at least once per month, and at every major change in scope.

D.

Only when the project manager requests a review of the cost deviations.

Question 24

Your customer's Care contract expired at the end of last year. No purchase orders have been received from the customer since the contract expired. How can Care service revenue be recognized in this case?

Options:

A.

Revenue cannot be recognized.

B.

Revenue is collected to WIP (Work In Progress) and recognized after the contract is signed.

C.

Revenue is recognized based on the expired contract on a monthly basis.

D.

The customer business controller decides how the revenue is recognized.

Question 25

When must the change management process be initiated?

Options:

A.

When there is a significant change in the scope of the project.

B.

When the customer sends a formal request for additional scope of work.

C.

When the CT head acknowledges that the customer will accept negotiation of the changes in the scope of the contract.

D.

Whenever the project execution requires services or materials different from those agreed in the contractual scope of work.

Question 26

For which of the following reasons can the cost baseline be updated?

Options:

A.

Due to cost savings.

B.

Due to delays in project execution.

C.

Due to customer driven scope change.

D.

Due to subcontractor's price change.

Question 27

As theoretically defined, what characteristic best describes the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Total budget for the project.

B.

Time phased budget for the project.

C.

Total budget for the project including the contingency budget.

D.

Total budget for the project including the contingency budget and the management reserve.

Question 28

What approval process is required when the EAC deviates >2% from the CBL?

Options:

A.

The CT starts the LoA approval process and if the LoA approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is updated.

B.

The CT starts the LoA approval process and if the LoA approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is not updated, but the EAC will be updated to reflect the change.

C.

The COM requests approval from CBC and if the CBC approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is not updated, but the EAC will be updated to reflect the change.

D.

The COM requests approval from CBC and if the CBC approves the cost increase, the initial CBL is updated.

Question 29

The WBS comprises several levels of decomposition of the total project. The lowest level of definition is always the:

Options:

A.

build cycle.

B.

planning element.

C.

working interface.

D.

work package.

Question 30

The one document that should always be used to identify and mitigate risk is the:

Options:

A.

risk management plan.

B.

scope statement.

C.

project charter.

D.

contingency plan.

Question 31

Which of the following is a direct project cost?

Options:

A.

Corporate office utilities.

B.

Workers compensation insurance.

C.

Installation materials.

D.

Both corporate office utilities and workers compensation insurance.