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Free and Premium IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Dumps Questions Answers

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

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Question 2

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 3

An internal audit activity plans its engagements based on an organization-wide risk assessment. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the required frequency of the risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment must be performed at least quarterly.

B.

The risk assessment must be performed at least annually.

C.

The risk assessment must be performed at least once every five years, in alignment with the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program.

D.

There is no specific requirement; a risk assessment should be performed as needed to account for changes in the business environment.

Question 4

Which of the following is true regarding the monitoring of internal audit activities?

Options:

A.

The form and content of monitoring policies could vary by industry

B.

The board of directors is responsible for the establishment of monitoring polities

C.

Both large and small audit departments must have written policies on monitoring.

D.

The chief audit executive must develop all monitoring policies related to the activity

Question 5

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management's action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 6

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 7

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period.

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management’s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

Question 8

During a review of the organization's waste management processes, the internal auditor discovered that wastewater is being disposed of inappropriately. The auditor's recommendations, suggested to mitigate the risk of regulatory sanctions and reputational damages, were accepted and timelines for implementation were agreed. However, during the internal audit activity's periodic follow-up exercise, management indicated that the recommendation was too expensive to implement and the current disposal method has been cost-effective. What should the chief audit executive do in this case?

Options:

A.

Nothing, as the internal audit activity has fulfilled its responsibility of providing recommendations to mitigate the risks to which the organization is exposed.

B.

Contact the regulatory agency responsible for monitoring such matters in order to convince management to implement the recommendations.

C.

Convene a meeting with senior management and discuss the issue and the potential impact it may have on the organization.

D.

Highlight the current exposure to the external auditors so they too can highlight the issue and further pressure management to address the concern.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

Options:

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

Question 10

An internal auditor is examining the organization's internal control processes. Which of the following would the auditor do to test the reliability of a customer database1?

Options:

A.

Perform a site visit to see whether the organization's servers are operational

B.

Interview end users to determine whether they understand how to use the database information

C.

Determine whether policies are in place on how to use the database information

D.

Review for indications of potential issues with the database information

Question 11

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor's inclusion of management's satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

Question 12

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

Question 13

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

Question 14

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

Question 15

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

Question 16

In which of the following situations would an internal auditor consider the need to outsource competencies and skills9

Options:

A.

During the inspection of a wind turbine. an internal auditor notices that some replaced parts took used According to purchase documents, the parts still have a long lifespan.

B.

The auditor believes that the audit client's actions contradict the organization's code of conduct The audit client disagrees and says his actions are for the organization's benefit

C.

An audit team member is allocated to conduct an assurance engagement m the sales unit. However, the same auditor performed an assurance engagement in that area just one year prior

D.

During an inventory count, the auditor ascertained that some goods were missing. The audit client argues that the auditor does not understand how inventory should be counted

Question 17

An internal auditor using the five-attribute approach to document deficiencies in a warehouse shipping process. Which of the following attributes will be included in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Risk, impact likelihood existing control, recommendation

B.

Condition, cause, effect, recommendation

C.

Condition, cause effect test result

D.

Risk, impact test result recommendation

Question 18

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

Question 19

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

Question 20

An internal audit team was conducting an assurance engagement to review segregation of duties in the purchasing function. The internal auditors reviewed a sample of purchase orders from the past two year and discovered that 2 percent were signed by employees who were operating in a designated acting capacity due to employee absence. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes of information would most likely assist the auditor in deciding whether to report this finding?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency

B.

Reliability

C.

Relevance

D.

Usefulness

Question 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following procedures would be least effective in managing the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

The employee’s name listed on organization’s payroll is compared to the personnel records.

B.

Payroll time sheets are reviewed and approved by the timekeeper before processing.

C.

Employee access to the payroll database is deactivated immediately upon termination.

D.

Changes to payroll are validated by the personnel department before being processed.

Question 22

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

Question 23

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management's self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 24

Prior to performing testing an internal auditor has determined that a primary process control failed due to design weakness. Which of the following actions should the auditor perform next?

Options:

A.

Determine whether there are any compensating controls in place to reduce the nsk to an acceptable level, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

B.

Test the control anyway to determine the likelihood that the control was not performed property, and discuss this matter with management of the business area to determine which corrective action is needed

C.

Conclude that the process control environment is weak, issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

D.

Confer with a second internal auditor to determine whether the control failure is legitimate issue a finding on this conclusion and report this finding to management of the business area

Question 25

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive's request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization's audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

Question 26

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team’s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 27

The chief audit executive (CAE) for a manufacturing company included in this year s audit plan a review of the company's laboratory, using an experienced external service provider. The audit plan was approved by the audit committee without any changes At the time of engaging the external service provider, the CAE also secured the approval from the CEO. Who is responsible for ensuring that the conclusions reached for this exercise are adequately supported7

Options:

A.

Audit committee

B.

CEO

C.

CAE.

D.

External service provider

Question 28

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity's risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity's key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

Question 29

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

Question 30

Senior management wants assurance that third-party contractors are following procedures as agreed with the organization. Which type of audit would be most appropriate

to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

A compliance audit.

B.

A due diligence audit.

C.

A financial audit.

D.

An external audit.

Question 31

During the filework phase of an assurance engagement the internal auditor decides that she wants to adjust the audit work program. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take9

Options:

A.

Request additional information needed from management of the area under review.

B.

Obtain approval from the engagement supervisor

C.

Obtain the required resources, including IT. to complete the work

D.

Discuss the change in scope with management of the area under review.

Question 32

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

Question 33

Which of the following statements about including consulting engagements in the annual internal audit plan is true?

Options:

A.

All requests for consulting engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan

B.

Assurance engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan but there is no requirement to include consulting engagements

C.

Consulting engagements do not need to be included m the annual internal audit plan unless requested by the board

D.

The acceptance of proposed consulting engagements into the annual internal audit plan may depend on their ability to add value

Question 34

Which of the following sources of audit evidence is most reliable?

Options:

A.

Evidence obtained directly from an untested third party.

B.

Uncorroborated audit evidence obtained indirectly from an employee.

C.

Undocumented audit evidence obtained directly from a manager.

D.

Timely audit evidence obtained directly from a customer.

Question 35

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

Question 36

Which of the following is a primary reason for an internal auditor to use a risk and control questionnaire when auditing financial processes?

Options:

A.

To gain an understanding of the control environment

B.

To collect as much financial data as possible before engagement fieldwork begins.

C.

To test the effectiveness of financial controls in an efficient and relatively inexpensive way

D.

To facilitate the quantification of financial data obtained

Question 37

Which of the following attribute sampling methods would be most appropriate to use to measure the total misstatement posted to an accounts payable ledger?

Options:

A.

Stop-or-go sampling

B.

Probability to proportional size sampling

C.

Classical variable sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 38

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 39

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives.

Question 40

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

Question 41

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

Question 42

An internal auditor completed a review of expenses related to the launch of a new project. The auditor sampled 45 transactions approved by a senior project manager and identified 30 with questionable vendor documentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the auditor to include in the audit report?

Options:

A.

The organization incurred excessive cost overruns that resulted in significant financial and legal risk to the project.

B.

The organization experienced a potential conflict of interest

C.

The organization had weaknesses in its review process which allowed questionable transactions with some vendors

D.

The organization allowed the project to launch without assurance that all transactions were regularly approved

Question 43

How should an internal auditor approach preparing a detailed risk assessment during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

Complete the risk assessment independently to prevent conflicts of interest with the function being reviewed.

B.

Work with external auditors to ensure that the risk assessment includes items reflected on the independent auditor's report.

C.

Work with management of the function being reviewed, as management would be most familiar with the business objectives and related risks.

D.

Consult with the compliance department, which typically has a more comprehensive view of the organization.

Question 44

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

Question 45

Which of the following would be most useful for an internal auditor to obtain during the preliminary survey of an engagement on internal controls over user access management?

Options:

A.

The policy for granting, modifying, and deleting user access to ensure processing requirements are clearly articulated.

B.

A sample of change request forms to verify whether the forms bear the required approval for the user access change.

C.

User access reports that were reviewed by management to ensure that access rights are appropriate for employee roles.

D.

A current listing of system users and an employee listing to determine whether system users are active employees of the organization.

Question 46

Which of the following statements is false regarding roles and responsibilities pertaining to risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Senior management is charged with overseeing the establishment risk management and control processes.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for overseeing the evaluation risk management and control processes.

C.

Operating managers are responsible for assessing risks and controls in their departments.

D.

Internal auditors provide assurance about risk management and control process effectiveness.

Question 47

In which of the following populations would the internal auditor most likely choose to use a stratified sampling approach?

Options:

A.

Inventory comprised of the same items stored in different warehouses

B.

Batches of materials that must be confirmed as meeting quality standards

C.

Revenue that is earned by an organization through cash receipts or as receivable.

D.

Tax reports submitted to meet the requirements of the local taxation authority

Question 48

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

Options:

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year's transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year's budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier's information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

Question 49

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company's investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

Question 50

Which of the blowing is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Proving in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations

B.

Proving an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentially.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls ever the reliability of financial reporting

Question 51

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

Question 52

Which of the following would help the internal audit activity assess compliance with the organization's standard operating procedures for bank deposits during a preliminary survey?

Options:

A.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch customers.

B.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the president of the organization.

C.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to the director of bank operations.

D.

Issue an internal control questionnaire to select branch managers.

Question 53

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 54

According to IIA guidance, which of the following should be a primary objective for an internal auditor who is conducting an exit conference?

Options:

A.

Improve relations with the engagement clients.

B.

Present the final engagement communication.

C.

Identify concerns for future audit engagements.

D.

Ensure the accuracy of engagement conclusions.

Question 55

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor. Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action. Which of the following describes management’s action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan.

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

Question 56

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

Question 57

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 58

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

Question 59

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

Question 60

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

Question 61

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 62

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

Question 63

According to the MA guidance, which of the following does the engagement work program test in a review of an organizational process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives.

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls.

D.

Process scope

Question 64

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

Options:

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

Question 65

Which of the following should be the focus of the effect section of the preliminary observations document?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Control activities

Question 66

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

Options:

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

Question 67

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

Question 68

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most likely to become part of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Information obtained from historic audits and memos.

B.

Risk and control registers or matrices.

C.

Resource deployment plans and sampling methodologies.

D.

Prior findings and management responses.

Question 69

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

Question 70

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

Question 71

Internal control questionnaires are used to achieve which of the following objectives?

Options:

A.

To ascertain the operating effectiveness of a procedure

B.

To verify the accuracy of Information in a report

C.

To assess the controls mitigating major risks

D.

To determine whether specified contra procedures are in place

Question 72

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

Question 73

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 74

Which of the following situations is most critical for the chief audit executive to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive disagreed with the business unit manager's initial decision to accept a particular risk Management ultimately agreed to address the risk only after discussing the issue with senior management.

B.

The internal audit activity was restructured, which resulted in a significant change in responsibilities among audit managers and supervisors for some audits

C.

A staff internal auditor had difficulties completing a portion of the audit because management of the area under review was unwilling to cooperate and provide information timely.

D.

The resignation of an internal audit manager during the year caused the chief audit executive to defer a number of audit engagements to the following year.

Question 75

While conducting a review of the logistics department the internal audit team identified a crucial control weakness. The chief audit executive (CAE) decided to prepare an audit memorandum for management of the logistics department followed by an informal meeting What is the most likely reason the CAE decided to prepare the audit memorandum?

Options:

A.

To report up-to-date audit progress to management

B.

To ensure that the internal audit team and the CAE are aligned with regard to the identified weakness

C.

To allow management to address the identified weakness timely

D.

To obtain management's agreement with regard to the identified weakness

Question 76

For an action plan to be effective, it should be designed primarily to address which of the following elements of an observation?

Options:

A.

Condition

B.

Root cause

C.

Criteria

D.

Recommendation

Question 77

Acceding to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing is an assurance service commonly performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Proposing fine item recommendation lot the annual financial budget of the accounting department

B.

Making recommendations regarding financial approval authority limits for the operations department

C.

Validating whether employees are following established policies and procedures in the procurement department

D.

Generating expense report metrics for employees in the finance department

Question 78

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 79

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

Question 80

How do internal auditors generally determine the priority of the areas within the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

By calculating the period of time when the area was last audited try internal auditors

B.

By totaling the monetary value of the processes within the organization in the scope of the engagement

C.

By counting the number of red flags indicating the potential fraudulent activities within the area.

D.

By estimating the likelihood of a risks occurring and the potential impact of that risk on the organization

Question 81

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

Question 82

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. "What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

Question 83

An internal auditor was reviewing the procurement department's tender documentation for completeness He documented all discrepancies but the procurement manager disagreed with his findings Upon further review, the internal auditor noted that all discrepancies had been corrected in the tender database. Which of the following courses of action would have prevented this situation?

Options:

A.

The auditor should have ensured the preservation of audit evidence by taking screenshots or extracting tender documents

B.

The auditor should have extracted a list of logs and identified any actions that were executed in the database during the audit

C.

The auditor should have instructed procurement workers that changes to the database during the course of the audit were strictly forbidden

D.

The internal auditor should have created a more thorough work program, which would address audit criteria and potential causes in more detail

Question 84

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization's risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization's goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 85

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 86

Which of the following best illustrates the primary focus of a risk-based approach to control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

To evaluate controls regarding the computer security of an oil refinery.

B.

To examine the processes involved in exploring, developing, and operating a gold mine.

C.

To assess the likelihood and impact of events associated with operating a finished goods warehouse.

D.

To link a financial institution's business objectives to a work unit responsible for the associated risk.

Question 87

A corporate merger decision prompts the cruel audit executive (CAE) to propose interim changes lo the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks. When of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CCO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

Question 88

Management requested internal audit consulting services. During fieldwork significant control issues were identified by the internal audit team. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

End the consulting engagement and report the results to management as planned

B.

Report the significant control issues to senior management and the board and recommend corrective action

C.

Mutually agree with the engagement client on corrective actions

D.

Focus on the consulting engagement and schedule an assurance engagement next to address the control issues

Question 89

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

Options:

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

Question 90

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

Options:

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

Question 91

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

Question 92

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

Question 93

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

Question 94

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

Question 95

An internal auditor determines that certain information from the engagement results is not appropriate for disclosure to all report recipients because it is privileged. In this situation, which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Disclose the information in a separate report.

B.

Distribute the information in a confidential report to the board only

C.

Distribute the reports through the use of blind copies.

D.

Exclude the results from the report and verbally report the conditions to senior management and the board.

Question 96

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding audit workpapers?

Options:

A.

Review notes on audit workpapers must be retained to provide a record of questions raised by the reviewer.

B.

Audit workpaper documentation policies are reviewed and approved by the audit committee.

C.

Management of the department being audited should review the prepared workpapers for accuracy.

D.

Audit workpaper preparation contributes to the professional development of the internal audit staff.

Question 97

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity's purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management's assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

Question 98

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization's accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

Question 99

Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires''

1 Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes

2 Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review 3. Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

4 Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 3 only

D.

2. 3 and 4 only

Question 100

When auditing an organization's purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

Question 101

According to IIA guidance which of the following represents sufficient information?

Options:

A.

Information that is factual adequate and convincing

B.

Information that is best attainable through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Information that supports engagement objectives and recommendations

D.

Information that helps the organization meet its goals

Question 102

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a charitable contribution from the organization. Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions.

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities.

Question 103

As a result of server managements assumption of risk there is residual risk that exceeds me organisation's risk appetite. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

ignore the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

B.

Assume the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

C.

Ensure senior management acknowledges residual risk

D.

Communicate with the board the issue of residual risk

Question 104

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization's headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization's external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization's affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

Question 105

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

Question 106

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

Question 107

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

Question 108

An internal auditor is analyzing sates records and is concerned whether a transaction is recorded in the coned period. The accounting manager explains that the external auditor approved the records and produces an email from the external audit team leader. How should tie internal auditor respond?

Options:

A.

Ask the external auditor to review the same transaction again as an independent third party

B.

Consult account accounting principles, standards, and relevant guidelines in regard to timing of the entry

C.

Interview the chief financial officer and obtain her opinion on how the transactions should be recorded

D.

Compare the recording of this transaction to now similar ones were executed last year

Question 109

A chief audit executive (CAE) is determining which engagements to include on the annual audit plan. She would like to consider the organization's attitude toward risk and the degree of difficulty in achieving objectives. Which of the following resources should the CAE consult?

Options:

A.

The corporate risk register.

B.

The strategic plan.

C.

Internal and external audit reports.

D.

The board's meeting records.

Question 110

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 111

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 112

Which of the following is a significant governance issue that should be reported by the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

There is no risk management and control process and risk management is solely tie responsibility of operational managers

B.

The organisation’s code of conduct is distributed to employees each year however employees are not required to attest that they will operate In compliance with the code.

C.

Reconciliation of planned board meeting agendas to meeting minutes finds that one meeting was canceled, and the agenda topics were covered at the following meeting.

D.

The review of the five-year strategic plan shows that the details of the plan have not been dearly communicated to employees throughout the organization

Question 113

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

Question 114

A healthcare organization's chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the organization's IT team relies heavily on a vendor. Therefore an IT vendor assessment review was added to the annual audit plan. During the review, the audit team discovered that the vendor had not been performing proper monitoring to ensure that the subcontractors it hired comply with the organization requirements. The organization's chief information officer (ClO) does not agree with the audit team's recommendation for the IT team to monitor the compliance level of vendor subcontractors. How should the audit team proceed to resolve this situation?

Options:

A.

Write a risk acceptance memo for the CIO to sign acknowledging the observation and indicating a willingness to accept the risk.

B.

Provide an example of the attestation form that vendors must use. Then, recommend that the IT team require vendors to submit the attestation form on a regular basis.

C.

Escalate the issue to the audit committee, as the CIO is unwilling to implement the recommended action plan.

D.

Escalate the issue to the CAE to assess whether the ClO's reasoning is acceptable.

Question 115

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 116

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 117

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

Question 118

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

Question 119

What information would be most useful to an internal auditor who is attempting to identify specific processes to include in the scope of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Recent organizationwide recognition awards given to employees within the area.

B.

The timing of the most recent audit of the area.

C.

Management's presentation to the board regarding recent area achievements.

D.

Recent area performance indicators against productivity metrics.

Question 120

To which of the following aspects should the chief audit executive give the most consideration while communicating an identified unacceptable risk to management?

Options:

A.

The organization's attitude to hierarchy

B.

The organization's whistleblowing strategy

C.

The organization's ongoing risk monitoring process

D.

The organization's risk management policy

Question 121

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

Question 122

Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Haphazard sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Probability-proportional-to-size sampling

Question 123

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 124

Which of the following statements concerning workpapers is the most accurate?

Options:

A.

The organization and the format of workpapers is the same for all engagements

B.

The extent of what is included in workpapers is a matter of professional judgment

C.

Workpapers should be complete so that every conceivable question that can be raised should be answered

D.

Copies of operational managements records should not be included, but referenced so that they can be located

Question 125

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

Question 126

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process' support of the internal audit activity is true?

Options:

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

Question 127

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisor’s review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisor’s concerns have been addressed.

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisor's review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisor’s review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 128

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

Question 129

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

Options:

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

Question 130

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

Question 131

Which of the following would present the most critical external risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization experiences a merger, and the management team is reorganized and redistributed globally

B.

The organization launches a product into new global markets

C.

After minimal testing, the organization implements a new system to replace a legacy system

D.

Regulators announce broad legislative reforms applicable to the industry within which the organization operates

Question 132

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

Question 133

During a consulting engagement an internal auditor wants to determine whether all principal stakeholders are involved in a project. Which tool should the auditor use?

Options:

A.

RACI (responsible, accountable, consult and inform) chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

SWOT{strengths. weaknesses opportunities, and threats) analysis

D.

Workflow analysis

Question 134

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 135

What is the primary objective of an engagement supervisor's review of key activities performed during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the engagement is completed on time and within budget

B.

To ensure that all work performed meets acceptable quality standards

C.

To ensure that management has provided suitable responses to all observations

D.

To ensure that management is satisfied with the progress of the engagement

Question 136

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

Question 137

An internal auditor notes that employees continue to violate segregation-of-duty controls in several areas of the finance department, despite previous audit recommendations. Which of the following recommendations is the most appropriate to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional segregation-of-duty reviews.

B.

Recommend appropriate awareness training for all finance department staff.

C.

Recommend rotating finance staff in this area.

D.

Recommend that management address these concerns immediately.

Question 138

Below is a flowchart detailing an organization's bank reconciliation process. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the flowchart?

Options:

A.

There is a conflict in the segregation of duties between preparing bank reconciliations and posting payments to the accounting books.

B.

There is an appropriate segregation of duties in the treasury department during the bank reconciliation process.

C.

There is a large workload for the treasury accountant during the bank reconciliation process.

D.

Bank statements should be obtained at a higher level, such as through the treasury supervisor.

Question 139

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department's staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity's increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization's recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 140

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

Question 141

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

Question 142

'Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

Question 143

Which of the following sources of testimonial evidence would be considered the most reliable regarding whether a process is effectively performed according to its design?

Options:

A.

The person responsible for performing the task

B.

Two or more people that work in the area

C.

The supervisor in charge of the process

D.

The manager that wrote the steps to be followed

Question 144

Which of the following actions best describes an internal auditor's use of test data to determine whether an organization's new accounts payable system avoids processing questionable invoices for payment?

Options:

A.

Creating an automated tool that monitors the computer program on a daily basis for potential issues that need corrective actions.

B.

Using an automated system that assists internal auditors with automating the risk analysis of the computer program for invoicing

C.

Embedding tools in the computer program to analyze the review processes of invoices for potential issues that may hamper payments

D.

Adding invoices to the computer program to assess the reliability and effectiveness of the review process and whether controls work.

Question 145

During an audit of the accounts receivable (AR) process, an internal auditor noted that reconciliations are still not performed regularly by the AR staff, a recommendation that was made following a previous audit. Monitoring by the financial reporting function has failed to detect the shortcoming. Both the financial reporting function and AR report to the controller, who is responsible for implementing action plans. Which of the following supports the internal auditor's decision to combine both observations into one reported finding?

Options:

A.

The observation was made during the same audit, and the action plan has a common owner.

B.

The observation relates to the same control activity within a common process.

C.

The observation has a common control, and it was noted in a prior audit.

D.

The observation has a common process, and the action plan for the observation has a common owner.

Question 146

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether company vehicles were being used for personal purposes She extracted a report that listed company vehicle numbers business units to which the vehicles are allocated travel dates, travel duration and mileage She then filtered the data for weekend dates Which of the following additional information would the auditor need?

Options:

A.

Names and work titles of employees

B.

Description of responsibilities of business units.

C.

Average fuel consumption data of vehicles

D.

Location and route data of vehicles

Question 147

Which of the following items, included in the preliminary audit communication would be most useful for management to formulate action plans in response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

A condition

B.

An audit objectives

C.

An audit scope

D.

An observation rating

Question 148

When a significant finding is noted early during a review of the accounts payable function, which next course of action is best for communicating the issue?

Options:

A.

Intern accounting management via an interim memorandum update

B.

Note the item in the workpapers for inclusion in the final audit report

C.

Call a meeting and discuss me issue with the audit committee

D.

Alert the CEO as soon as the issue is discovered

Exam Detail
Vendor: IIA
Certification: CIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Last Update: Jan 18, 2025
IIA-CIA-Part2 Question Answers