Free and Premium CompTIA SY0-701 Dumps Questions Answers

A site survey is the formal assessment used to determine the optimal number and placement of wireless access points (APs). According to Security+ SY0-701, wireless site surveys evaluate factors such as building layout, RF interference, wall material density, antenna propagation, and signal overlap. The goal is to ensure full wireless coverage while minimizing the number of APs needed, maximizing performance, and reducing dead zones.

During a site survey, technicians analyze:

Signal strength patterns

Interference sources (microwaves, metal shelving, wiring, etc.)

Required coverage zones

Capacity needs (number of users, devices)

Although heat maps (C) visually represent wireless signal distribution, they are a result of a site survey, not the process itself. WPA3 (B) is a security protocol unrelated to determining coverage. A signal locator (A) is not an enterprise-grade planning tool.

Therefore, the correct answer is D: Site survey.

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

A cryptographic vulnerability refers to weaknesses caused by the use of outdated or insecure cryptographic algorithms, protocols, or keys. These vulnerabilities make it easier for attackers to compromise encrypted data or communications. Use of deprecated ciphers or insufficient key lengths are typical examples.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and patch management are both examples of preventative and technical controls. MFA prevents unauthorized access by requiring multiple forms of verification, and patch management ensures that systems are protected against vulnerabilities by applying updates. Both of these controls are implemented using technical methods, and they work to prevent security incidents before they occur.

The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident. By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines​.

Air-gapping is the most effective way to protect an application server running unsupported software from network threats. By physically isolating the server from any network connection (no wired or wireless communication), it is protected from external cyber threats. While other options like port security or a screened subnet can provide some level of protection, an air gap offers the highest level of security by preventing any network-based attacks entirely.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure System Design​.

Job rotation is a strategy used in organizations to detect and prevent fraud by periodically assigning employees to different roles within the organization. This approach helps ensure that no single employee has exclusive control over a specific process or set of tasks for an extended period, thereby reducing the opportunity for fraudulent activities to go unnoticed. By rotating roles, organizations can uncover irregularities and discrepancies that might have been concealed by an employee who had prolonged access to sensitive functions. Job rotation also promotes cross-training, which can enhance the organization's overall resilience and flexibility.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Risk Management and Compliance​.

Hashing is used to verify data integrity. By comparing the hash value of the data before and after transmission, it is possible to determine if the data has been altered in transit. If the hash values match, the data has not been modified.

Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes.

TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication. 

Detailed Explanation:Swipe cards and biometric scanners are commonly used to control on-premises access due to their reliability and ability to restrict unauthorized entry. Swipe cards provide physical access control, while biometric scanners ensure identity verification. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 1: General Security Concepts, Section: "Physical Security Controls"​​.

An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.

The correct answer is A because the primary distinction between a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) and a Statement of Work (SOW) lies in their legal enforceability and purpose. In the Security+ SY0-701 governance and third-party risk management context, an MOU is generally a formal but nonbinding agreement that outlines mutual expectations, responsibilities, and cooperation between parties. It establishes intent and alignment but typically does not impose enforceable obligations or penalties if terms are not met.

An SOW, on the other hand, is legally binding and serves as a contractual document that defines specific deliverables, timelines, performance metrics, and acceptance criteria. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that SOWs are critical in vendor and service provider relationships because they clearly define what work will be performed, how success is measured, and what happens if requirements are not met. This makes the SOW enforceable in legal and regulatory contexts, especially when dealing with sensitive systems or data.

Option B is incorrect because both MOUs and SOWs can identify engagement participants, but this is not their defining difference. Option C is incorrect because both documents typically require agreement from all involved parties, and signature requirements vary by organization and jurisdiction. Option D is incorrect because it reverses the actual level of detail: MOUs are high-level and conceptual, while SOWs are detailed and task-specific.

In security programs, MOUs are often used for cooperative arrangements, such as information sharing between organizations or government entities. SOWs are used when accountability, compliance, and measurable outcomes are required. Understanding this distinction is essential for managing third-party risk, enforcing security requirements, and maintaining compliance with Security+ SY0-701 governance objectives.

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based simulation in which stakeholders review and talk through their roles, responsibilities, and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. This allows participants to evaluate and improve response plans without actual disruption.

 An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.

The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a servicelevel agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1

The log entries clearly show an attacker attempting to access sensitive system files by manipulating the filename parameter. The use of ../../../ is a classic indicator of a directory traversal attack, also called path traversal. This technique is used to move outside the intended web directory and access restricted locations on the server’s filesystem.

In this case, the attacker is attempting to read:

/etc/passwd — contains user account information

/etc/shadow — contains hashed password entries and is even more sensitive

The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 exam describes directory traversal as an attack where unvalidated user input allows navigation to system directories, often using sequences like ../ to bypass file path restrictions. This is exactly what is shown in the logs.

File injection (A) would involve inserting malicious files or code, not reading system files.

Privilege escalation (B) requires exploiting a system to gain higher privileges, not just reading files.

Cookie forgery (D) involves manipulating session cookies and does not match the observed behavior.

Because the attacker is using path traversal patterns to access protected files, the correct answer is C. Directory traversal.

Dynamic analysis is performed on software during execution to identify vulnerabilities based on how the software behaves in real-world scenarios. It is useful in detecting security issues that only appear when the application is running.References: CompTIA SY0-701 Course Content​.

To establish an encrypted connection (such as HTTPS/TLS) with an externally facing web server, the server must deploy a public key as part of its digital certificate. Clients use the server’s public key to initiate secure communication, which is validated by certificate authorities. The server holds the matching private key, but it is the public key that must be made available for encrypted connections to be established.

An unknown environment in penetration testing, also known as a black-box test, simulates an actual external attack where the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. This type of penetration test is designed to mimic real-world attack scenarios, where an attacker has little to no information about the target environment. The tester must rely on various reconnaissance and attack techniques to uncover vulnerabilities, much like a real-world attacker would. This approach helps organizations understand their security posture from an external perspective, providing insights into how their defenses would hold up against a true outsider threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course highlights the importance of understanding different penetration testing environments, including black-box testing, which aligns with the "unknown environment" in the provided answer.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: The guide details penetration testing methodologies, including black-box testing, which is crucial for simulating real external attacks​​​.

 An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.

An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.

An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.

A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.

Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.

References = 

The requirement is to prevent the accidental disclosure of national identity information—highly sensitive personal data. The best solution is DLP (Data Loss Prevention). DLP tools monitor, detect, and block unauthorized transmission or exposure of sensitive data across:

Email

Cloud storage

Endpoints

Networks

Databases

In Security+ SY0-701, DLP is specifically recommended for ensuring compliance with privacy regulations, including those related to national identifiers (e.g., Social Security numbers, national ID numbers).

A SIEM (A) aggregates logs but does not prevent data leakage. SCAP (B) provides standardized security configuration assessments, unrelated to data protection. A WAF (D) helps protect web applications but does not prevent sensitive data exfiltration.

Since the requirement focuses on preventing accidental disclosure, DLP is the only technology capable of detecting, labeling, blocking, and reporting attempts to move or expose sensitive national identity data. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

The security analyst is creating a "secure configuration guide," which is a set of instructions or guidelines used to configure devices securely before deployment. This guide ensures that thedevices are set up according to best practices to minimize vulnerabilities and protect against potential security threats.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on System Hardening and Secure Configuration​.

Data sovereignty concerns the laws and governance that apply to data at rest outside of a country’s borders. It refers to the legal implications and regulatory controls over where data is stored geographically.

After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.

Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.

A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.

Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm that the network is secure.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372-375; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 - 8:00.

A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface.

Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any network issue on the organization’s operations and reputation.

Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high-availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization,firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps in the network security.

E-discovery (electronic discovery) is the process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) in response to a legal request or investigation. It is a critical component of digital forensics when dealing with litigation, compliance, or regulatory matters.

Ensuring that other team members understand how a script works is essential to prevent a single point of failure. If only one person knows how the script operates, the organization risks being unable to maintain or troubleshoot it if that person is unavailable. Sharing knowledge ensures continuity and reduces dependence on one individual.

Reducing implementation cost and remediating technical debt are secondary considerations in this context.

Identifying complexity is important, but the main benefit is to avoid a single point of failure​​.

The scenario indicates that a user downloaded an unofficial patch, applied it, and afterward system files changed—detected by FIM. This strongly suggests the presence of a rootkit, which is designed to deeply embed itself into the operating system, altering core system files, modifying kernels, and hiding its presence.

Rootkits commonly replace or modify OS-level files, which results in changed file hashes—exactly what FIM is detecting. Rootkits often gain privileged, persistent control and are frequently disguised as legitimate updates or patches.

A logic bomb (A) is triggered by an event but does not typically modify OS files. A keylogger (B) captures keystrokes but doesn’t modify system files broadly. Ransomware (C) encrypts files, not silently alters system components.

Thus, the best match is D: Rootkit.

Hashing produces a fixed-length fingerprint of the script’s contents. By comparing the current hash with a known good hash, the engineer can verify if the script has been altered. Hashing is a one-way function used to validate integrity.

Masking (A) hides data, obfuscation (B) hides code logic, and encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not verify integrity as simply.

Integrity checking through hashing is fundamental in General Security Concepts【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

AnAPI (B)or Application Programming Interface is the best option when you want toautomate data exchangebetween systems. APIs provide structured, secure, and efficient ways for systems to communicate and are widely used in automation and orchestration tasks.

SOAR (A)is used for broader security orchestration and may use APIs under the hood but is more complex.

SFTP (C)is for manual/automated file transfers.

RDP (D)is for remote desktop access, not data automation.

This is referenced inDomain 1.5: Explain the importance of automation and orchestration in cybersecurityunder“Application programming interfaces (APIs).”

Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

The security engineer is likely to deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect the new web portal service. A WAF specifically protects web applications by filtering, monitoring, and blocking HTTP requests based on a set of rules. This is crucial for preventing common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web-based attacks that could compromise the web service.

Layer 4 firewall operates primarily at the transport layer, focusing on IP address and port filtering, making it unsuitable for web application-specific threats.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) provides more advanced filtering than traditional firewalls, including layer 7 inspection, but the WAF is tailored specifically for web traffic.

UTM (Unified Threat Management) offers a suite of security tools in one package (like antivirus, firewall, and content filtering), but for web application-specific protection, a WAF is the best fit​​​.

A backup strategy that combines weekly full backups with daily incremental backups stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage) drive is likely to meet an organization's Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). This approach ensures that recent data is regularly backed up and that recovery can be done efficiently, without significant data loss or lengthy downtime.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Disaster Recovery and Backup Strategies​.

Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods. Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router’s settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router’s Security Stinks: Here’s How to Fix It

Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:

Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers

Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers

Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components

Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security

Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle

Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is HardwareSecurity? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

The lessons learned phase of an incident response process involves reviewing the incident and generating reports. This phase helps identify what went well, what needs improvement, and what changes should be made to prevent future incidents. Documentation and reporting are essential parts of this phase to ensure that the findings are recorded and used for future planning.

Recovery focuses on restoring services and normal operations.

Preparation involves creating plans and policies for potential incidents, not reporting.

Containment deals with isolating and mitigating the effects of the incident, not generating reports​​.

A hot site is a fully operational offsite facility that is equipped with hardware, software, and up-to-date data, and is ready to take over operations immediately if the primary site fails. This allows for minimal downtime and quick failover, meeting the requirement for rapid recovery.

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is used to assign severity scores to security vulnerabilities, allowing organizations to assess risk and prioritize remediation efforts. By using CVSS scores, teams can address the most critical vulnerabilities first, based on the potential impact.

A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company’s incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies.

Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.

Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.

Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan​​.

Data masking replaces sensitive data with realistic but fictional data, preserving format and usability while protecting confidential information during testing in environments like UAT (User Acceptance Testing).

Tokenization (B) replaces data with tokens but is more common for payment data in production. Obfuscation (C) scrambles data but is less structured than masking. Encryption (D) protects data confidentiality but may not be practical for testing.

Data masking is a best practice for protecting sensitive data in non-production environments covered in the General Security Concepts domain【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Change management is the formal process designed to control, document, approve, and track modifications to systems, internal processes, assets, and security controls. This control mechanism helps prevent unauthorized or unintended changes that could introduce vulnerabilities or disrupt operations.

Playbooks are documented procedures for responding to incidents, incident response manages security incidents, and acceptable use policies define acceptable user behavior but do not directly control changes.

By enforcing proper change management, organizations maintain the integrity and security of their infrastructure, which is a critical topic covered in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.

Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 19 1

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Non-repudiation ensures that a sender cannot deny sending a message. Digital signatures provide non-repudiation because they use the sender’s private key, which only the legitimate owner possesses. When the email recipient verifies the digital signature using the sender’s public key, it proves the email was sent by the true owner of the private key and has not been altered.

Confidentiality (B) ensures information is protected from unauthorized access and is usually achieved through encryption. Integrity (C) ensures data has not been modified, while authentication (D) verifies the identity of a user. Although digital signatures also support integrity and authentication, the specific property that prevents denial of sending the email is non-repudiation.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights digital signatures as a cryptographic mechanism used for authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation, especially in email security, PKI systems, and secure messaging.

Thus, the correct answer is Non-repudiation.

To reduce risky behaviors such as clicking suspicious emails, the first and most effective step is to implement a phishing awareness campaign that educates users about recognizing phishing attempts, the risks involved, and safe practices. Awareness training can significantly reduce successful phishing attacks by changing user behavior.

Updating policies (A) is important but does not directly affect user behavior immediately. Password management solutions (B) help with credential security but do not reduce phishing click rates. Issuing warning letters (C) is punitive and less effective than proactive education.

This approach aligns with Security Program Management principles emphasizing training and awareness as primary controls against phishing risks【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

The most important security concern when using legacy systems is the lack of vendor support. Without support from the vendor, systems may not receive critical security patches and updates, leaving them vulnerable to exploitation. This lack of support can result in increased risk of security breaches, as vulnerabilities discovered in the software may never be addressed.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the context of risk management and the challenges posed by legacy systems​​.

A self-signed certificate is generated internally without involving an external Certificate Authority (CA). In a self-signed certificate, the certificate issuer and certificate subject are the same entity. Security+ SY0-701 explains that organizations frequently use self-signed certificates for internal systems, lab environments, or testing scenarios where external trust chains are unnecessary.

A digital signature (A) is a cryptographic function, not a certificate. Asymmetric keys (B) are used in public-key cryptography but do not constitute a certificate by themselves. Symmetric keys (D) are encryption tools, not certificates.

Therefore, the example of a certificate generated internally is C: Self-signed.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) acts as a preventive control by actively blocking threats and a detective control by monitoring and alerting to suspicious activities on endpoints.

A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request sent to a certificate authority (CA) to issue an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information like the public key, which will be part of the certificate.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.

References

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

Because the organization plans to deploy high-powered wireless access points, the next critical step is to create a heat map of the building perimeter. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights wireless heat maps as an essential design tool for identifying signal bleed, coverage overlap, dead zones, and areas where wireless signals extend beyond intended boundaries.

Stronger access points increase the risk of signal leakage outside the building, which could allow unauthorized users to attempt connections from parking lots or nearby buildings. A heat map enables the security team to visualize RF propagation and adjust power levels, antenna placement, and access point locations to minimize external exposure while maintaining internal coverage.

Deploying IPSec tunnels (B) is unnecessary for standard WLAN architectures. Enabling WPA2-PSK (C) weakens security compared to WPA3. Disabling SSH administration (D) is a hardening step but does not address wireless coverage risks.

Therefore, the correct next step in secure Wi-Fi design is A: Create a heat map of the building perimeter.

A diagram of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Step 1: Understand Requirements & Security Principles

Requirements:

Customer-facing payment application (PCI DSS compliance applies)

Hosted on third-party cloud (e.g., AWS)

Must segment public-facing and internal resources

Needs to be scalable and resilient

Must have strong security controls

Step 2: Design the High-Level Network Layout

Core Components:

VPC (Virtual Private Cloud): Isolates your environment from other tenants in the cloud.

Subnets:

Public subnet: For resources that must communicate with the internet.

Private subnet: For internal resources, NOT directly exposed to the internet.

Step 3: Place Resources in Appropriate Subnets

Public Subnet:

Internet-facing Load Balancer (LB): Distributes traffic to application servers.

Web Application Firewall (WAF): Protects against web exploits.

Autoscaling Instances: EC2 (or VM) servers running your web front-end, automatically scaling as traffic grows.

Private Subnet:

Application servers: Back-end logic, not exposed to internet directly.

Database: Sensitive data storage, only accessible by application servers.

Internal Load Balancer: Manages traffic among app servers.

WAF: Can be used internally as well for defense-in-depth.

Step 4: Add Connectivity and Security Controls

Internet Gateway: Allows resources in public subnet to communicate with the internet.

NAT Gateway: Allows outbound internet traffic from private subnet without exposing private IPs.

Security Groups: Firewalls at the instance level; allow only necessary traffic (e.g., LB to web server, web server to DB).

Network ACLs: Subnet-level firewalls for additional control.

Step 5: Network Diagram Explanation (Based on Your Images)

Public Subnet (Top Layer)

Load Balancer

Accepts HTTPS traffic from customers.

Sends only necessary HTTP/HTTPS to web servers in public subnet.

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

Sits in front of Load Balancer.

Filters malicious requests (SQLi, XSS, etc.).

Autoscaling Group

Multiple web servers for redundancy and scalability.

Placed in public subnet to respond to traffic spikes.

Private Subnet (Bottom Layer)

Application Servers

Receive requests from public subnet’s load balancer.

Not directly exposed to the internet.

Database

Only accessible from application servers, never public.

Security groups restrict all inbound traffic except from app servers.

Internal Load Balancer

Balances requests to application servers.

Step 6: Flow of Data (Step-by-Step)

Client -> Internet Gateway -> WAF -> Load Balancer (Public Subnet):Customers initiate connections to your app over the internet.

Load Balancer -> Autoscaling Web Servers (Public Subnet):Load balancer routes requests to available web servers.

Web Servers -> Application Logic (Private Subnet):Web servers pass necessary requests to the internal application servers.

App Servers -> Database (Private Subnet):Application servers query/update customer payment data in the database.

Outbound (NAT Gateway):App servers may need to access updates or external APIs—use NAT Gateway for secure outbound connections.

Step 7: Security Best Practices

Security Groups: Only allow necessary ports (e.g., 443 for HTTPS to LB, 3306 for MySQL between app server and DB).

Network ACLs: Add another layer of subnet-level restrictions.

Encryption: Use HTTPS for all external connections, encrypt data at rest and in transit (TLS, disk encryption).

IAM Roles/Policies: Principle of least privilege for accessing resources.

Monitoring/Logging: Enable VPC flow logs, cloud service logs, and application logging.

Patch Management: Automate patching for OS and applications.

Backups: Regular, secure backups of critical data.

Step 8: Compliance Considerations

For payment applications (PCI DSS):

Isolate cardholder data environment (CDE).

Strong access controls (multi-factor authentication, role separation).

Regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing.

Retain logs for auditing.

Step 9: Draw the Architecture (Summary)

Internet Gateway: Allows inbound/outbound internet access.

Public Subnet: WAF, Load Balancer, Autoscaling group.

Private Subnet: App servers, DB, internal LB.

NAT Gateway: Outbound access for private resources.

Security Groups/ACLs: Control all traffic flows.

Monitoring/Logging: Enabled at all levels.

Bonus: Sample Security Group Rules

Web Server (Public Subnet):

Inbound: 443 (HTTPS) from Internet

Outbound: 80/443 to App Servers

App Server (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 80/443 from Web Servers

Outbound: 3306 (MySQL) to Database

Database (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 3306 from App Servers

Outbound: None (unless replication required)

References to Security+ Domains

1.0 General Security Concepts: Principle of least privilege, defense in depth.

2.0 Threats, Vulnerabilities, Mitigations: WAF, segmentation, patching.

3.0 Security Architecture: Network segmentation, secure design.

4.0 Security Operations: Monitoring, logging, response.

5.0 Security Program Management: Compliance, policy.

An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism used to explicitly define permissions for files, folders, or other resources. ACLs specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects and what operations are allowed on given objects. This allows the administrator to centrally and granularly manage file permissions for a group or team.

Mitigate is the risk management strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk. If a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented, the enterprise should adopt the mitigate strategy first to address the existing vulnerabilities and gaps in the application. This could involve applying patches, updates, or configuration changes to the application, or adding additional layers of security controls around the application. Accept, transfer, and avoid are other risk management strategies, but they are not the best options for this scenario. Accept means acknowledging the risk and accepting the consequences without taking any action. Transfer means shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Avoid means eliminating the risk by removing the source or changing the process. These strategies may not be feasible or desirable for a legacy application that is critical to business operations and has no preventative controls in place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; A Risk-Based Framework for Legacy System Migration and Deprecation2

Arace conditionoccurs whentwo or more processes attempt to access and modify a shared resource simultaneously, leading to unintended behavior. In this scenario, the attacker was able to modify a temporary fieldbefore the SQL update completed, indicating atime-of-check to time-of-use (TOCTOU) vulnerability, which is a type of race condition.

Memory injection (B)refers to inserting malicious code into a running process’s memory, but that isnotwhat is happening here.

Malicious update (C)is too broad and does not specifically describe this scenario.

Side loading (D)is a technique where malicious software is loaded via a trusted application, unrelated to this case.

Detailed Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Data Masking and Tokenization"​​.

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.

ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511

An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the expected performance, availability, uptime, response times, and responsibilities between a provider and a client. The requirement in the scenario—“97% uptime”—is a classic example of an SLA metric. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that SLAs outline measurable service expectations so the client can assess compliance and performance.

A BPA (A) outlines business partnership terms, not performance uptime. An MOU (B) documents mutual understanding but is not legally binding and does not include uptime metrics. An NDA (C) protects confidentiality, not availability or service guarantees.

Thus, the correct answer is D: SLA.

Sanitization is the process of thoroughly removing or wiping all data from devices before disposal or donation to prevent sensitive information from being recovered or leaked.

Impossible travel (A)refers to logins fromgeographically distant locations within a time period that makes travel between them physically impossible. In this case, a user logging in fromChicago and Rome within a short timeframetriggers this anomaly.

This is a strong indicator of acompromised accountorstolen credentialsbeing used elsewhere.

Detailed Explanation:

A software development life cycle (SDLC) policy outlines responsibilities, best practices, and standards for developing, deploying, and maintaining secure systems and software. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Policies and Standards"​​.

After listing authorized email servers in DNS using SPF, the next protocol the company should apply is DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). DKIM provides cryptographic assurance that email messages have not been altered in transit and that they were legitimately sent by the domain owner. Security+ SY0-701 explains that DKIM works by digitally signing outgoing emails using a private key, which recipient servers verify using a public key stored in DNS.

SPF validates where an email is sent from, but it does not protect message integrity. DKIM complements SPF by ensuring the message content is authentic, which significantly improves email reputation and reduces spam filtering issues.

DMARC (A) builds on SPF and DKIM but requires both to be in place first. DLP (B) prevents data leakage and is unrelated to email reputation. SPF (D) was already applied, as stated in the question.

Thus, the correct next step is C: DKIM.

Port security is the best mitigation technique for preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC address table of network switches. Port security can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the switch's MAC table (a form of MAC flooding attack). When the allowed number of MAC addresses is exceeded, port security can block additional devices or trigger alerts.

Load balancer distributes network traffic but does not address MAC flooding attacks.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and prevents attacks but isn't specifically designed for MAC flooding mitigation.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) offers advanced traffic inspection but is not directly involved in MAC table security​​​.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Step 1: Analyze the Data and Question

Scenario:

Company data (directory, compensation report, user data) is found on the dark web.

CIO asks you to investigate and implement the most secure protection for employee accounts.

Task:

Identify weak password practices.

Choose the best containment step that keeps evidence on the host uncompromised.

Step 2: Identify Weak Password Practices

Prompt: Select all weak password practices from the list:

Age

Reuse

Length

Expiration

Complexity

Let’s analyze each:

Age: If passwords are used for a long time without change, it's a weak practice (passwords become easier to compromise over time).

Reuse: Reusing passwords across accounts is a serious weak practice (if one gets leaked, all accounts are at risk).

Length: Short passwords are weak; password length matters. If passwords are too short, that’s a weak practice.

Expiration: Forcing frequent expiration can lead to weaker passwords (users pick simple ones), but not expiring passwords at all is also risky. (For most exams, "expiration" by itself isn't usually called a weak practice unless the policy is poorly set.)

Complexity: Lack of complexity (not requiring numbers, symbols, etc.) is a weak practice.

So, select all that are truly weak practices:

Answer for weak password practices (check all that apply):

✔️ Age

✔️ Reuse

✔️ Length

✔️ Complexity

(Expiration is more controversial; on the exam, the main focus is usually on Age, Reuse, Length, and Complexity.)

Step 3: Choose the Best Containment Step

Prompt:

Select the containment step that will leave potential evidence on the host uncompromised:

PIN code

FIDO security key

SMS authentication

OTP token

Containment step means “what security solution can you implement to protect employee accounts going forward, while preserving digital evidence on potentially compromised systems?”

The most secure solution for account protection among these, that also doesn’t interfere with host evidence, is FIDO security key.

Why?

PIN code: Not strong enough; also may be stored locally.

SMS authentication: Can be intercepted; often leaves traces on the host (like SMS logs).

OTP token: Similar risks, some implementations might log to the host.

FIDO security key: Hardware-based, phishing-resistant, no codes sent to the host, and doesn’t alter host evidence—authentication happens off the device.

So, the best answer is:

FIDO security key

Step 4: Solution Recap and Justification

Detailed Solution Recap:

Identify weak password practices:

Weaknesses: passwords are reused, not long enough, lack complexity, and used for a long time.

Select the best security solution:

Implement FIDO security keys for employees.

Most secure among listed options.

Hardware-based; resistant to phishing, interception, and does not leave evidence on the compromised host (which is important for forensics).

Code signing uses digital signatures to verify software authenticity and integrity, ensuring the code has not been tampered with since it was signed by the developer. It helps detect if malware was introduced after delivery.

Static code analysis (B) inspects code for vulnerabilities during development but does not verify delivered binaries. Input validation (C) protects applications at runtime. Secure storage (A) protects stored data, unrelated to software delivery.

Code signing is an essential security control in Software Development Life Cycle and Supply Chain Security【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Shadow IT is the term used to describe the use of unauthorized or unapproved IT resources within an organization. The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments, such as IT, security, or compliance. This could pose a risk to the organization’s security posture, data integrity, and regulatory compliance1.

Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2

A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Operating system (OS) vulnerabilitiescan allow attackers to exploit system functions that affect multiple applications, leading towidespread compromise.

B (patch cycle concerns)is valid but not the primary concern—many OS vendors provide regular patches.

C (user trust in OS features)is a risk, but the more significant issue is thatOS vulnerabilities often affect multiple system components.

D (ease of exploitation)is not always true, as application and human-related vulnerabilities can be equally exploitable.

Thus,the main concern is that an OS exploit can impact multiple system functions, leading to broader security risks.

Detailed Explanation:Access control lists (ACLs) allow administrators to fine-tune file permissions by specifying which users or groups have access to a file and defining the level of access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Mechanisms"​​.

The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a technology designed to check the revocation status of digital certificates in real-time without requiring the client to download entire revocation lists. Unlike Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are periodically updated and can be large, OCSP queries an OCSP responder to receive the status of a specific certificate.

OCSP is considered passive verification because it allows clients to check a certificate's current validity status on-demand without maintaining local copies of revocation data. The OCSP responder returns whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or expired.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is hardware for secure key storage, and Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request for certificate issuance; neither is used for verifying certificate expiration status.

The differences and roles of OCSP and CRLs are thoroughly covered in the Cryptography and PKI chapter of the SY0-701, where OCSP is highlighted as the more efficient and real-time method to verify certificate status passively【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

VM escape allows an attacker to break out of a virtual machine to access the hypervisor or other adjacent virtual machines on the same host, effectively moving laterally to adjacent systems.

Side loading (B) involves loading malicious code in place of legitimate components. Remote code execution (C) allows running arbitrary code remotely. Resource exhaustion (D) causes denial of service by overusing resources.

VM escape is a known virtualization vulnerability detailed in SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A directive managerial control provides guidance and expectations for behavior through policy and governance. An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a classic example, as it defines how users may and may not use organizational systems and data. Security+ SY0-701 categorizes policies as managerial (administrative) controls that direct user behavior and establish accountability.

A login warning banner (B) is typically a deterrent/administrative control but is not managerial in nature. A master service agreement (C) is a contractual/legal document, not a managerial directive for internal users. A “No trespassing” sign (D) is a physical deterrent control.

Because an AUP formally directs behavior and is enforced through management processes, A: Acceptable use policy is correct.

A warm site is the best option for a business that does not require immediate failover but wants to reduce the workload required for recovery. A warm site has some pre-installed equipment and data, allowing for quicker recovery than a cold site, but it still requires some setup before becoming fully operational.

Hot sites provide immediate failover but are more expensive and require constant maintenance.

Cold sites require significant time and effort to get up and running after an outage.

Geographically dispersed sites refer to a specific location strategy rather than the readiness of the recovery site​​.

Threat hunting is a proactive security activity focused on identifying hidden or undetected threats within an environment, even when no alerts or indicators have been triggered. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, threat hunting assumes that attackers may already be present and actively evading traditional security controls such as SIEMs, IDS/IPS, or endpoint protection tools.

Threat hunting involves manually analyzing logs, endpoint telemetry, network traffic, and behavioral patterns to uncover anomalies that automated systems may miss. This aligns directly with the scenario, where the analyst has a suspicion of malicious actors but no alerts confirming activity. Threat hunting helps identify advanced persistent threats (APTs), living-off-the-land techniques, credential misuse, and lateral movement that may not generate immediate alerts.

Digital forensics (B) is typically performed after an incident has been confirmed. Vulnerability scanning (C) identifies weaknesses but does not detect active attackers. E-discovery (D) is a legal process for collecting electronically stored information and is not used for threat detection.

Because the analyst is proactively searching for hidden threats without existing alerts, the correct action is A: Threat hunting.

Unidentified removable devices, such as USB drives, are a common threat vector for insider threat actors attempting data exfiltration. Insiders can easily use these devices to transfer sensitive data out of the organization undetected, making it one of the most commonly utilized methods for data theft.

Default network device credentials are a security vulnerability but not typically used for data exfiltration.

Spear phishing emails are used for external attacks, not insider data exfiltration.

Impersonation through typosquatting is typically used by external actors for phishing or fraud​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

VM escape occurs when an attacker inside a virtual machine breaks out of the guest OS and gains access to the underlying host hypervisor or other virtual machines. In this scenario, the penetration tester executes a script to inject a malicious payload that allows access to the host filesystem—this is the textbook definition of VM escape.

The SY0-701 exam specifically identifies VM escape as one of the most critical virtualization vulnerabilities, as it defeats isolation and can compromise entire virtual environments. This typically results from flaws in hypervisor software, improper sandboxing, or insecure VM tools.

Cross-site scripting (B) affects web applications and browsers, not hypervisors. Malicious updates (C) involve tampered patch delivery. SQL injection (D) targets databases through application input fields.

Because the attacker moved from a VM to the host system, the correct classification is VM escape, a high-severity virtualization vulnerability.

A hash is an algorithm used to verify data integrity by generating a fixed-size string of characters from input data. If even a single bit of the input data changes, the hash value will change, allowing users to detect any modification to the data. Hashing algorithms like SHA-256 and MD5 are commonly used to ensure data has not been altered.

Aconflict of interest (B)arises when personal relationships or interests could potentially influence professional decisions. In this case, the CFO's friendship with the vendor could improperly affect the procurement decision-making process.

This scenario falls underDomain 5.3: Explain the importance of frameworks, policies, procedures, and controls—specifically under“Personnel policies (e.g., conflict of interest, mandatory vacations, job rotation).”

A honeypot is a decoy system or account designed to attract attackers and detect malicious activity. Creating a user account as a trap fits this definition.

Honeytoken (A) is a decoy data element, honeynet (B) is a network of honeypots, and honeyfile (D) is a decoy file.

Honeypots are important tools in Security Operations and incident detection【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

The best first step is to reviewpatching (A). Outdated OS versions often contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited by malware. Ensuring systems are up-to-date is a foundational cybersecurity practice.

This is highlighted inDomain 2.1: Given a scenario, analyze indicators of malicious activityandDomain 2.2, emphasizing the importance of“Patching” as part of system hardening and mitigation strategy.

The file left by the external vendor, containing detailed architecture information and code snippets, is best described as proprietary data. Proprietary data is information that is owned by a company and is essential to its competitive advantage. It includes sensitive business information such as trade secrets, intellectual property, and confidential data that should be protected from unauthorized access.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of data classification and protection​​.

This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).

Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.

Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.

Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation​

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is designed to automate vulnerability management, configuration assessment, and compliance checking. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, SCAP standardizes how vulnerability information is expressed, measured, and shared, allowing security tools to automatically scan systems, identify weaknesses, and assess compliance against predefined baselines.

SCAP integrates multiple standards such as CVE, CVSS, CPE, and XCCDF, enabling automated vulnerability scanning, scoring, and reporting across large environments. This makes it a core technology for continuous vulnerability management and compliance automation.

CVE (A) is a catalog of known vulnerabilities, not an automation framework. OSINT (C) provides publicly available intelligence but does not automate remediation or assessment. CVSS (D) provides severity scoring but does not automate vulnerability management.

Because SCAP enables automated identification, assessment, and reporting of vulnerabilities, the correct answer is B: SCAP.

A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

The scenario suggests that only the employees who used the kiosks inside the building had their credentials compromised. Since the time-keeping website is accessible from the internet, it is possible that a malicious actor exploited an unpatched vulnerability in the site, allowing them to inject malicious code that captured the credentials of those who logged in from the kiosks. This is a common attack vector for stealing credentials from web applications.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses web application vulnerabilities and how attackers can exploit them to steal credentials​​.

A false negative occurs when a security control or scanning tool fails to detect a vulnerability that actually exists. In vulnerability scanning, this means the scan reports a system as secure even though it is vulnerable. Therefore, a result that shows no known vulnerability is an example of a false negative if a vulnerability is present but undetected.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 explains that false negatives are particularly dangerous because they provide a false sense of security, potentially leaving systems exposed to exploitation. Causes of false negatives include outdated vulnerability signatures, misconfigured scanners, credentialed scan failures, or unsupported legacy systems.

Option A describes a false positive, where a vulnerability is reported but does not exist. Option B may indicate an outdated scan result, not necessarily a false negative. Option D is incorrect because zero-day vulnerabilities do not have known remediations and are typically not detected by signature-based scanners.

Thus, the correct example of a false negative is C: A result that shows no known vulnerability.

Due diligence refers to the process of researching and understanding the laws, regulations, and best practices that govern information security within a specific industry. Organizations are required to conduct due diligence to ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, which helps mitigate risks and avoid penalties.

Compliance reporting involves generating reports to demonstrate adherence to legal or regulatory standards.

GDPR is a specific regulation governing data privacy in the EU, not a general practice of researching laws.

Attestation is a formal declaration that an organization is compliant with a set of standards but is not the act of researching the laws​​​.

Benchmarks provide standardized security configuration baselines or templates (such as CIS Benchmarks) for systems including firewalls. Using benchmarks helps MSSPs apply consistent and secure configurations across many clients efficiently.

SNMP (A) is for network device management, Netflow (C) is for traffic analysis, and SCAP (D) is a framework for vulnerability and compliance management but not directly for template creation.

Benchmarks are fundamental for configuration management in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17

The Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk. ALE is calculated by multiplying the SingleLoss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO), which provides an estimate of the annual expected loss due to a specific risk, making it valuable for long-term financial planning and risk management decisions.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Key escrow is the process of storing encryption keys (or copies of them) with a trusted third party so data can be recovered if the primary decryption key is lost. In Security+ SY0-701, escrow is emphasized as a required safeguard for organizations that rely heavily on encryption, especially for regulated data or systems requiring guaranteed recoverability.

A CSR (A) is a Certificate Signing Request and does not store keys. Salting (B) is used with hashing to prevent password attacks and does not assist in data recovery. A root of trust (C) ensures secure hardware initialization but does not store backup decryption keys.

Key escrow directly addresses scenarios where encryption keys are misplaced, corrupted, deleted, or lost due to employee departure or system failure. Without escrow, encrypted data could become permanently inaccessible.

Thus, the correct answer is Escrow, the only mechanism specifically designed to allow recovery when decryption keys are unavailable.

Open service ports directly contribute to an organization’s attack surface because they provide potential entry points that attackers can probe, exploit, or abuse. In the context of the Security+ SY0-701 objectives, the attack surface is defined as the sum of all possible points where an attacker can attempt to enter or extract data from a system. Each open port corresponds to a service or application that is listening for incoming connections, and if that service is unnecessary, misconfigured, unpatched, or weakly protected, it becomes a viable attack vector.

Option D is correct because open ports may expose services that do not need to be accessible, especially if proper access controls, firewall rules, or network segmentation are not in place. For example, leaving management interfaces, legacy services, or test services open can allow attackers to perform reconnaissance, banner grabbing, credential attacks, or exploitation of known vulnerabilities. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes the principle of minimizing attack surface by disabling unused services, closing unnecessary ports, and applying the principle of least functionality.

Option A is incorrect because endpoint antivirus tools are not responsible for identifying or managing open network ports at an architectural level. Option B is partially true but incomplete; while open ports can allow remote access, not all open ports are remote entry points, and the question asks for the best explanation of how attack surface increases. Option C is incorrect because open ports do not inherently enable updates and, in fact, often increase risk rather than reduce it.

In summary, open service ports increase attack surface by exposing services that attackers can target. Proper port management, firewall enforcement, and regular vulnerability scanning are critical controls emphasized in Security+ SY0-701 to reduce exposure and limit unauthorized access.

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is the most effective addition when an organization already has a firewall but continues to face repeated external attacks. Security+ SY0-701 states that an IPS operates inline and automatically blocks malicious traffic in real time based on signatures, anomaly behavior, or heuristics. Whereas a firewall filters traffic by rules, an IPS detects and prevents deeper-level threats such as exploits, malware, and command-and-control attempts.

A UTM (C) includes IPS features, but it is typically used to replace a firewall with an all-in-one appliance. The question states the organization already has a firewall, so the most efficient addition is a standalone IPS. A SIEM (A) aggregates and analyzes logs but does not block attacks. A load balancer (B) distributes traffic for performance—not security.

Thus, the best item to stop active inbound attacks is D: IPS.

Tokenization replaces sensitive financial data—such as credit card numbers, account numbers, or customer identifiers—with harmless tokens that retain usability but reveal nothing if leaked. This is widely used in the financial industry, particularly in PCI-DSS-regulated systems.

Hashing (B) is one-way and not reversible, making it unsuitable for financial transactions that need original data retrieved. Salting (C) is used to protect hashed passwords, not to mask financial data. Steganography (D) hides data inside media files but is not used for payment processing.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies tokenization as the preferred method for protecting structured sensitive data while maintaining operational functionality.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Tokenization.

Detailed Explanation:Insecure key storage refers to vulnerabilities caused by improper handling of cryptographic keys and certificates, such as storing them in plaintext or lacking access controls. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Cryptographic Vulnerabilities and Mitigation"​​.

Detailed Explanation:Rules of engagement specify the agreed-upon boundaries, scope, and procedures for a penetration test to ensure compliance and avoid disruption to the environment. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Penetration Testing Procedures"​​.

The log entries show repeated attempts to access directories using patterns such as ../, which is a common directory traversal attack technique. Directory traversal (or path traversal) aims to access files and directories outside the web server's root directory by manipulating file paths. The ../ sequence is used to move up one directory level, which attackers exploit to try and retrieve sensitive files.

Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into smaller and isolated segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation can help improve network security by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack surface, and enforcing access control policies. Segmentation can also enhance network performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish the goal of storing customer data on a separate part of the network, the administrator can use segmentation technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or switches. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 1

The first step in responding to a cybersecurity incident, particularly when malware is detected, is to contain the impacted hosts. This action prevents the spread of malware to other parts of the network, limiting the potential damage while further investigation and remediation actions are planned.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on incident response procedures and the importance of containment in managing security incidents​​.

A backout plan provides a documented procedure to revert or undo a change if it fails or causes issues, helping to restore the environment quickly and prevent extended downtime. Having a backout plan in place minimizes impact during failed changes.

User notification (A) informs users but does not prevent failures. Change approval (B) and risk analysis (C) occur before the change and cannot fix issues after failure.

Backout planning is a best practice in Change Management covered in Security Program Management【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

"Group Policy Objects (GPOs) are a feature of Microsoft Windows Active Directory that allow administrators to centrally manage and configure settings across multiple systems in an efficient manner. When a vulnerability such as SMBv1 (Server Message Block version 1) is identified onmultiple servers, GPOs can be used to disable this outdated and insecure protocol across all affected systems simultaneously. By creating a GPO to enforce a policy that disables SMBv1, the organization can ensure consistent remediation without manually configuring each server individually, making it the most efficient solution for domain-joined environments."

A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.

One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:

Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available

Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts

Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic

Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage

Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity

Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application

Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible.

Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust canprovide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.

A responsibility matrix clarifies the division of responsibilities between the cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer, ensuring that each party understands and implements their respective security controls.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​.

Centralized authentication (such as Active Directory or LDAP) combined with proper password policies helps prevent the reuse of the same local credentials across multiple systems, reducing the risk of lateral movement during attacks like credential reuse or pass-the-hash.

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.

An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent themfrom exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.

Some examples of preventive controls are:

Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device

Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system

Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees

An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:

Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software

Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption

Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes

Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms

Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network

By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.

References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA

When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations​​.

Compromised vendor email accounts often lead to business email compromise (BEC) attacks where attackers send malicious or unexpected requests appearing from trusted sources. Training users to be alert to unexpected requests even if they appear to come from familiar addresses is critical in preventing such attacks.

Refraining from clicking images (A) is less effective than being vigilant about suspicious content and requests. Deleting emails from unknown providers (B) is not practical, as some legitimate emails come from unknown senders. Requiring invoices as attachments (C) can increase risk by encouraging users to open potentially malicious attachments.

This user awareness tactic is emphasized in the Security Program Management and Security Awareness training in SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A watering hole attack occurs when attackers compromise a website that is frequently visited by targeted users—in this case, the payment processing site used by employees. The compromised site then delivers malicious payloads to visitors, such as downloading malicious applications without user consent.

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks inject malicious scripts into web pages but typically do not cause automatic application downloads leading to restarts. Typosquatting (C) involves malicious websites mimicking legitimate ones via misspelled URLs. Buffer overflow (D) is an attack targeting software memory but doesn’t typically involve website compromise and automatic downloads.

This attack type is detailed in the Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

The most direct and immediate consequence of non-compliance with local data privacy regulations is fines. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that privacy and data protection laws (such as GDPR, HIPAA, or regional privacy statutes) include explicit financial penalties for organizations that fail to meet compliance requirements. These fines are measurable, enforceable, and frequently cited by regulators as primary enforcement mechanisms.

While reputational damage (B) and contractual implications (D) are serious secondary effects, they are indirect and harder to quantify. Sanctions (C) typically apply in geopolitical or trade contexts rather than routine privacy enforcement. Boards of directors are often most responsive to clearly defined financial exposure; fines provide a concrete, defensible rationale for allocating additional budget to compliance, tooling, staffing, and process improvements.

Security+ SY0-701 highlights risk communication to executives using quantifiable impacts. Presenting the likelihood and magnitude of regulatory fines directly supports a cost-benefit analysis and demonstrates fiduciary responsibility. Therefore, A: Fines is the most appropriate consequence to present.

A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.

Detailed Explanation:MAC filtering allows network administrators to control device access by specifying allowed MAC addresses. This prevents unauthorized devices, such as a laptop plugged into a network port, from gaining access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats and Vulnerabilities, Section: "Network Access Control Methods"​​.

Serverless architecture allows companies to deploy code without managing the underlying infrastructure. This approach significantly reduces the time and expense involved in code deployment because developers can focus solely on writing code, while the cloud provider manages the servers, scaling, and maintenance. Serverless computing also enables automatic scaling and pay-per-execution billing, which further optimizes costs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course covers cloud technologies, including serverless architectures, which are highlighted as a method to streamline and reduce costs associated with code deployment​​​.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It directly impacts how frequently backups should occur to ensure data can be restored to a point no older than the RPO after a disruption.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) (A) defines how quickly systems must be restored but does not dictate backup frequency. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) (C) and Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) (D) relate to system repair and reliability metrics, not backup schedules.

Understanding and defining RPO is a key part of the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) process covered in the Risk Management domain【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Side loading refers to the process of installing applications on a device from outside the official app store, which can introduce security vulnerabilities by bypassing standard app validation processes.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

If cadets are using company phone numbers to make unsolicited calls, and the logs confirm the numbers are not being spoofed, it suggests that the SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) server's security settings might be weak. This could allow unauthorized access or exploitation of the company's telephony services, potentially leading to misuse by unauthorized individuals.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, especially on SIP security and common vulnerabilities​​.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) detects unauthorized changes to files, including deletions, modifications, and permission alterations. When protecting shared data, FIM creates baseline hashes of files and monitors them for unexpected changes. Any deviation triggers alerts, enabling rapid investigation and remediation.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies FIM as a crucial tool for:

Integrity monitoring

Detecting unauthorized file deletion

Identifying malicious or accidental permission changes

Supporting compliance (PCI-DSS, HIPAA, etc.)

DLP (A) protects against data leakage but does not detect permission misconfiguration or deleted files. EDR (B) monitors endpoint activity but is not optimized for shared file integrity. ACL (D) defines permissions but does not track changes.

Thus, C (FIM) is the correct solution.

Detailed Explanation:This scenario highlights the need for training on the secure use of removable media. Users should learn to avoid using untrusted external storage devices to prevent malware infections. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Removable Media Controls and User Awareness Training"​​.

Detailed Explanation:

Time-of-day restrictions limit access to corporate systems based on predefined schedules. This ensures employees can only access resources during their assigned work hours. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Models"​​.

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1

 A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.

Non-compliance with internal policies, such as corporate security policies, falls under internal non-compliance. These are rules created and enforced within the organization to maintain security standards.

External non-compliance (A) refers to violations of outside regulations or laws. Standards (B) are generally established best practices or industry guidelines, and regulation (C) refers to legal or governmental requirements.

Internal compliance management is a key focus area in the Security Program Management domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached, attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with techniques like salting).

Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting credit card data than passwords.

Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for password protection.

Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn't directly protect the contents of the login database​​.

The correct answer is immutability, which is a critical concept in backup security and ransomware resilience as covered in the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study guide. Immutability ensures that backup data, once written, cannot be altered, modified, or deleted for a defined period of time. This protection is essential in ransomware recovery scenarios because modern ransomware often attempts to encrypt or delete backups to prevent recovery.

Immutable backups are typically implemented using write-once-read-many (WORM) storage or immutable cloud storage configurations. When immutability is enforced, even administrators or attackers with elevated privileges cannot modify the backup contents during the retention window. As a result, organizations can be confident that their backups remain in a known-good, unaltered state, free from ransomware infection or tampering.

The other options do not provide the same guarantee. Destruction refers to permanently deleting data, which would eliminate backups rather than protect them. Sanitization is the process of securely erasing data from storage media and is unrelated to preserving clean backups. Retention defines how long backups are kept but does not protect them from being modified or encrypted during that period.

From a Security+ SY0-701 perspective, immutability is closely tied to resilience, recovery, and data protection strategies. It supports business continuity by ensuring that organizations can reliably restore systems after an attack. Immutable backups are a cornerstone of modern ransomware defense strategies because they prevent attackers from corrupting recovery data. Therefore, immutability is the best and most effective control to guarantee that backups used for recovery are not infected.

Detective controls (such as audit logs, monitoring, and alerts) are specifically designed to identify and reveal unauthorized or malicious activity, including insider manipulation, in systems like payroll. These controls help ensure that any attempts to manipulate data are discovered and investigated.

A physical security control is a device or mechanism that prevents unauthorized access to a physical location or asset. An access control vestibule, also known as a mantrap, is a physical security control that consists of a small space with two sets of interlocking doors, such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens. This prevents unauthorized individuals from following authorized individuals into the facility, a practice known as piggybacking or tailgating. A photo ID check is another form of physical security control that verifies the identity of visitors. Managerial, technical, and operational security controls are not directly related to physical access, but rather to policies, procedures, systems, and processes that support security objectives. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 341; Mantrap (access control) - Wikipedia2

Detailed Explanation:

Sanctions imposed for non-compliance can include fines, legal actions, and loss of business licenses. These pose a significant financial and reputational risk to organizations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Regulatory Compliance Risks"​​.

 A user provisioning script is an automation technique that uses a predefined set of instructions or commands to create, modify, or delete user accounts and assign appropriate access or permissions. A user provisioning script can help to streamline account creation by reducing manual errors, ensuring consistency and compliance, and saving time and resources12.

The other options are not automation techniques that can streamline account creation:

Guard rail script: This is a script that monitors and enforces the security policies and rules on a system or a network. A guard rail script can help to prevent unauthorized or malicious actions, such as changing security settings, accessing restricted resources, or installing unwanted software3.

Ticketing workflow: This is a process that tracks and manages the requests, issues, or incidents that are reported by users or customers. A ticketing workflow can help to improve the communication, collaboration, and resolution of problems, but it does not automate the account creation process4.

Escalation script: This is a script that triggers an alert or a notification when a certain condition or threshold is met or exceeded. An escalation script can help to inform the relevant parties or authorities of a critical situation, such as a security breach, a performance degradation, or a service outage.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: User Provisioning – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1034: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 104. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 105.

Password spraying is a type of attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords across a large number of accounts. The event logs showing failed login attempts for many user accounts from the same IP address are indicative of a password spraying attack, where the attacker is attempting to gain access by guessing common passwords.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of identity and access management and common attack vectors like password spraying​​.

Compliance attestation (B)ensures that devices meetpredefined security policies(e.g., encryption enabled, updated antivirus, latest OS patches) before being allowed access to corporate resources. This is commonly enforced usingMobile Device Management (MDM)systems.

By using compliance checks via MDM, only secure,policy-compliantdevices are promoted from quarantine to trusted network segments.

Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or TrustedPlatform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data.

Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.

Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.

Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the application level, the database level, or the file system level. Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database.

References = Data Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+ Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course - Cybr, Application Hardening – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2.

The correct answer is Zero Trust because it directly aligns with all three stated requirements: creating secure zones, enforcing consistent access control policies across the organization, and reducing the overall threat surface. In the Security+ SY0-701 framework, Zero Trust is a modern security architecture model based on the principle of never trust, always verify. It assumes that threats may already exist inside or outside the network and therefore requires continuous validation of users, devices, and sessions.

Zero Trust architectures segment environments into secure zones, often using microsegmentation, to prevent lateral movement by attackers. This directly reduces the scope of threats by limiting what an attacker can access even if one component is compromised. Enforcing company-wide access control policies is another core Zero Trust principle, as access decisions are centrally governed and based on identity, device posture, context, and least privilege rather than network location.

Option B, AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting), is an access control framework, but it does not inherently define secure zones or reduce threat scope through segmentation. Option C, Non-repudiation, ensures actions cannot be denied later and is primarily related to auditing and accountability, not access control architecture. Option D, CIA, refers to confidentiality, integrity, and availability—fundamental security goals rather than an implementation model.

The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes Zero Trust as a strategic approach to minimizing attack surfaces, enforcing least privilege, and protecting enterprise resources regardless of user location or network boundaries. By continuously validating access and restricting trust, Zero Trust architectures significantly reduce risk and improve resilience against both internal and external threats.

In summary, the combination of secure zones, centralized access control enforcement, and reduced threat exposure clearly indicates the implementation of a Zero Trust architecture.

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer’s PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.

To identify the exactcommand or input usedduring a SQL injection attack, theapplication log (B)is the most relevant. It records inputs, errors, and processing activities within the application layer.

UnderDomain 2.1, CompTIA emphasizes reviewingapplication logsto detect indicators of malicious activity, includingweb application attackslike SQL injection.

Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1

End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1

Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491

Hashing is the correct mechanism for ensuring that a software release has not been modified prior to reaching the end user. Hashing provides integrity verification by generating a fixed-length digest (such as SHA-256) from the original software package. When users download the software, they can compute the hash locally and compare it to the hash value published by the vendor. If the values match, the software has not been altered; if they differ, tampering or corruption has occurred.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes hashing as a core cryptographic control used to verify integrity for files, updates, patches, and software distributions. Hashing is extremely sensitive to change—altering even a single bit in the file results in a completely different hash value.

Encryption (B) protects confidentiality, not integrity. Tokenization (A) replaces sensitive data with tokens and is unrelated to software integrity. Obfuscation (D) makes code harder to read but does not guarantee it has not been modified.

Therefore, hashing is the most appropriate and reliable method to ensure software integrity before release.

The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.

In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration, data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for them to perform their job functions.

The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers’ activity, such as by tracking web browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.

References = 

A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words “gambling”, “porn”, or “malware” in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment.The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as or The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, or By scanning the URL for the string the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the technology required for automating infrastructure deployment. IaC allows organizations to define and deploy servers, networks, containers, and cloud resources using machine-readable configuration files rather than manual configuration. This leads to faster deployment, consistent environments, repeatability, version control, and lower human error.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a foundational component of DevOps and modern cloud operations. It supports automated provisioning through tools such as Terraform, Ansible, CloudFormation, and Puppet. IaC also enhances security by enabling automated compliance checks and standardized hardened configurations.

IaaS (B) is a cloud service model, not an automation mechanism. IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise used in threat intelligence. IoT (D) refers to Internet-connected devices and is unrelated to infrastructure deployment.

Therefore, IaC is the required technology for automated, repeatable, secure infrastructure deployments.

The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441

PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.

If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.

The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls andrecommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself. C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance. D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used for secure command-line access to remote systems, while Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension of SSH used specifically for securely transferring files. Both SSH and SFTP ensure that data is encrypted during transmission, protecting it from interception or tampering.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure Protocols and Encryption​.

Firewalls are classic examples of technical controls as they use technology to restrict or permit network traffic based on security policies. Technical controls are implemented through hardware or software solutions.

Security guards (A) and fences (C) are physical controls, while policies (B) are administrative controls.

Technical controls like firewalls are fundamental in securing network perimeters and endpoints as covered in the Security Architecture domain【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a security solution that allows organizations to enforce policies on employee-owned or company-issued mobile devices. It can restrict the installation of unauthorized applications, ensuring that only company-approved apps are used.

Containerizationisolates work applications from personal applications but does not enforce app restrictions.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)focuses on preventing sensitive data leaks rather than managing app installations.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM)tracks changes to files and system configurations but does not control app installations.

Therefore,MDMis the best solution for restricting unauthorized applications on personal devices.

"Network segmentation is a security practice that divides a network into smaller, isolated segments to limit access and reduce the attack surface. Firewalls are commonly used to enforce segmentation by creating rules that allow or deny traffic based on source, destination, and port. Tomeet compliance requirements, such as restricting access to internal servers, firewall rules can be configured to block all external traffic while permitting only authorized internal systems to communicate with the segmented servers. This ensures that sensitive resources are isolated from unauthorized access."

The misuse of personally identifiable information (PII) is often mitigated through employee training on privacy legislation and company compliance. Training on privacy legislation educates employees about legal requirements and consequences related to handling PII, such as GDPR or HIPAA. Company compliance training reinforces internal policies and procedures regarding data handling, acceptable use, and the repercussions of violations.

While social engineering and phishing training are important for security awareness, they address external threats rather than insider misuse of data. Risk management is a broader discipline focused on assessing and mitigating organizational risks but does not directly prevent employee misuse through training. Remote work training focuses on secure practices for working outside corporate environments, which is not the core issue here.

This approach aligns with Security Program Management and Oversight principles emphasizing compliance and privacy training to reduce insider threats【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

An insider threat is a security risk that originates from within the organization, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner, who has authorized access to the organization’s data and systems. An insider threat can be malicious, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging sensitive data, or unintentional, such as falling victim to phishing or social engineering. An insider threat can cause significant damage to the organization’s reputation, finances, operations, and legal compliance. The user’s activity of logging in remotely after hours and copying large amounts of data to a personal device is an example of a malicious insider threat, as it violates the organization’s security policies and compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the data. References = Insider Threats – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 3.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 133.

Management review is a critical step in the change management process. Before implementing any design change, management reviews help evaluate the potential impact, security implications, and alignment with organizational goals and policies. This review ensures that the change is justified, risks are understood, and proper approvals are obtained.

Load testing is a performance test, maintenance notifications are communication steps, and procedure updates are documentation activities — all important but generally occur after management has approved the change.

The significance of management involvement in change governance is a foundational concept in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8

The correct answer is Watering-hole because the attack involves compromising a legitimate website that is regularly visited by a specific group of targeted users—in this case, journalists—in order to indirectly infect or compromise them. The Security+ SY0-701 study guide defines watering-hole attacks as targeted attacks where adversaries identify websites frequented by their intended victims and then compromise those sites to deliver malware, steal credentials, or conduct further exploitation.

In this scenario, the attacker does not directly target the journalists’ email systems. Instead, the attacker compromises a trusted website that the journalists frequently access. When the journalists visit the site, malicious code can be delivered through drive-by downloads, malicious scripts, or credential-harvesting mechanisms. This technique is particularly effective for nation-state attackers because it leverages trust and normal user behavior, making detection more difficult.

Option A, On-path, is incorrect because on-path (man-in-the-middle) attacks involve intercepting or altering communications between two parties in transit, rather than compromising a third-party website. Option C, Typosquatting, involves registering domains with misspelled names to trick users into visiting malicious sites, which is not described here. Option D, Brand impersonation, typically refers to phishing or spoofing attacks that mimic a trusted brand to deceive users, often via email or fake websites, rather than compromising a legitimate one.

The SY0-701 objectives emphasize that watering-hole attacks are commonly associated with advanced persistent threats (APTs), including nation-state actors, because they allow precise targeting of specific industries, professions, or organizations. This attack method highlights the importance of browser security, threat intelligence, web filtering, and user awareness to reduce exposure to trusted-but-compromised resources.

In summary, compromising a frequently used website to gain access to a targeted group’s accounts is a textbook example of a watering-hole attack.

The correct answer is If the root certificate is installed because trust errors in SSL/TLS deployments most commonly occur when the certificate chain cannot be validated back to a trusted root certificate authority. In the Security+ SY0-701 cryptography and PKI objectives, trust is established through a chain of trust, beginning with a trusted root CA, followed by any intermediate CAs, and ending with the server’s certificate.

In this scenario, the administrator has already confirmed that the certificate was issued by a legitimate CA and that the private key is valid. This eliminates common issues related to key mismatch or improper issuance. The next logical step is to verify that the system (or the client systems connecting to it) trusts the CA that issued the certificate. If the root certificate—or required intermediate certificates—are missing from the trust store, clients will flag the certificate as untrusted even though it is otherwise valid.

Option A, checking wildcard configuration, is not relevant unless the certificate is being used for multiple subdomains, which is not indicated. Option B, validating the certificate signing request, would be unnecessary because the CA successfully issued the certificate. Option D, verifying the public key, is incorrect because the public key is embedded in the certificate and would already be validated as part of successful issuance.

The SY0-701 study guide highlights that certificate trust failures are frequently caused by incomplete certificate chains, missing root or intermediate certificates, or misconfigured trust stores. Ensuring that the correct root CA certificate is installed allows systems to verify the certificate’s authenticity and establish secure communications.

In summary, when an SSL certificate is valid but not trusted, the most likely cause is a missing trusted root certificate, making option C the correct answer.

Posting hashes allows users to verify the integrity of downloaded files. As outlined in Security+ SY0-701, a cryptographic hash (e.g., SHA-256) produces a fixed-length digest unique to the file’s contents. Users can compute the hash of the downloaded file and compare it to the published value; a match confirms the file has not been altered.

Certificates (B) establish identity and trust but do not directly verify file integrity post-download unless combined with signing workflows. Algorithms (C) are general methods, not verification artifacts. Salting (D) is used with password hashing and is irrelevant here.

Therefore, A: Hashes is the correct choice.

A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual endpoint and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can help to mitigate the threat posed by suspicious connections between internal endpoints by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application. A host-based firewall is different from a web application firewall, which is a type of firewall that protects web applications from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and session hijacking. A host-based firewall is also different from an access control list, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources, such as files, folders, printers, or routers. A host-based firewall is also different from an application allow list, which is a list of applications that are authorized to run on an endpoint, preventing unauthorized or maliciousapplications from executing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 254

Jailbreaking is the process of removing restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on a smartphone, allowing the user to install unauthorized software and features not available through official app stores. This action typically voids the warranty and can introduce security risks by bypassing built-in protections.

SOU (Statement of Understanding) is not related to modifying devices.

Cross-site scripting is a web-based attack technique, unrelated to smartphone software.

Side loading refers to installing apps from unofficial sources but without necessarily removing built-in restrictions like jailbreaking does​​.

Purchasing insurance is a classic example of risk transfer, where financial risk associated with potential losses is shifted to a third party (the insurer). This strategy does not eliminate the risk but moves the financial burden.

Mitigation (A) reduces risk impact or likelihood through controls, acceptance (B) involves acknowledging the risk without action, and avoidance (C) eliminates the risk by not engaging in the activity.

Risk transfer is a fundamental concept taught in the Risk Management domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Hashing is the process used to verify file integrity. When transferring a file between devices, a hash value (such as SHA-256) is generated before the transfer and then recomputed afterward. If the two hash values match, the file has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during transmission.

Authentication (A) verifies identity, not file integrity. Obfuscation (B) hides meaning but does not detect modification. Encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not guarantee integrity unless combined with hashing or digital signatures.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 covers hashing under cryptographic functions used for integrity verification. Hash algorithms ensure that even a single byte change results in a completely different hash value (the avalanche effect). This makes hashing the standard method for verifying the integrity of transferred files, software downloads, backups, and system images.

Full disk encryption (A)ensures that data stored on the device is protected even if the device is physically stolen. This is a fundamental security control for end-user devices, especially laptops and mobile devices, to prevent data breaches.

Endpoint protection (D)refers to anti-malware, antivirus, and host-based firewall solutions that safeguard end-user devices from malware, ransomware, and unauthorized access.

These measures are explicitly referenced in theCompTIA Security+ SY0-701exam objective2.2: Given a scenario, apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigationunderDevice hardening.

Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 327.

Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.

The act described is espionage, where classified information is stolen and provided to adversaries or unauthorized parties, usually for political, military, or strategic advantage.

Data exfiltration (B) is the technical act of stealing data but doesn’t specify motivation. Financial gain (C) or blackmail (D) could be motivations but are not clearly indicated here.

Espionage is a classic threat actor motivation outlined in the Threats domain【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

 Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.

The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.

Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.

Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.

Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks … - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute ForceAttack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet

Failure to comply with right-to-be-forgotten (data privacy) regulations can lead to significant fines imposed by regulatory authorities like GDPR enforcers. Such laws require companies to delete personal data upon user request.

Data breaches (B) are security incidents; revenue loss (C) and blackmail (D) may occur indirectly but fines are the direct legal consequence.

Regulatory compliance and consequences are critical topics in Security Program Management【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

A honeypot is a security mechanism set up to attract and detect potential attackers by simulating vulnerable assets. By hosting a part of the infrastructure online with known vulnerabilities that appear to be company assets, the company can observe and analyze the behavior of attackersconducting reconnaissance. This approach allows the company to get alerts and gather intelligence on potential threats.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on threat detection techniques such as honeypots​​.

Business Email Compromise (BEC)is atargeted phishing attackin whichattackers impersonate executives or high-ranking officials(such as a CEO) to manipulate employees intotransferring money or providing sensitive data. Since the request is coming from the CEO’s corporate email (possibly spoofed or compromised), this is aclassic example of BEC.

Phishing (B)is a broader term but typically involvesmassfraudulent emails rather than targeted executive impersonation.

Brand impersonation (C)involves faking a company’s identity (e.g., fake PayPal emails).

Pretexting (D)involves social engineering tactics but does not necessarily involve email compromise.

 A honey pot is a system or a network that is designed to mimic a real production server and attract potential attackers. A honey pot can be used to identify the attacker’s methods, techniques, and objectives without affecting the actual production servers. A honey pot can also divert the attacker’s attention from the real targets and waste their time and resources12.

The other options are not effective ways to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers:

Video surveillance: This is a physical security technique that uses cameras and monitors to record and observe the activities in a certain area. Video surveillance can help to deter, detect, and investigate physical intrusions, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers3.

Zero Trust: This is a security strategy that assumes that no user, device, or network is trustworthy by default and requires strict verification and validation for every request and transaction. Zero Trust can help to improve the security posture and reduce the attack surface of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers4.

Geofencing: This is a security technique that uses geographic location as a criterion to restrict or allow access to data or resources. Geofencing can help to protect the data sovereignty andcompliance of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers5.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Honeypots and Deception – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 985: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario asRBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1

 The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References =You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2

Multi-factor Authentication – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4

CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5

Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 579 1

 A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization’s network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be 10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any. Therefore, the correct firewall rule is:

access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed.

References = Firewall Rules – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501, Understanding Firewall Rules – CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall – CompTIA A+ 220-1102 – 1.6.

Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.

The other options are not the best ways to address the company’s concern:

Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.

Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization,efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.

Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) solution is the most suitable option for securing an organization that has adopted a cloud-first strategy and does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure. CASBs provide visibility and control over shadow IT services, enforce security policies, and protect data across cloud services.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of cloud security and managing risks associated with shadow IT​​.

A group policy object (GPO) is a mechanism for applying configuration settings to computers and users in an Active Directory domain. By pushing a GPO update, the systems administrator can quickly and uniformly enforce the new password policy across all systems in the domain. Deploying PowerShell scripts, enabling PAP, and updating EDR profiles are not the most efficient or effective ways to change the password policy within an enterprise environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 115; Password Policy - Windows Security

In this scenario, employees are attempting to navigate to spoofed websites, which is being blocked by the web filter. To address this issue, the administrator should implement security awareness training. Training helps employees recognize phishing and other social engineering attacks, reducing the likelihood that they will attempt to access malicious websites in the future.

Deploying multifactor authentication (MFA) would strengthen authentication but does not directly address user behavior related to phishing websites.

Decreasing the level of the web filter would expose the organization to more threats.

Updating the acceptable use policy may clarify guidelines but is not as effective as hands-on training for improving user behavior​​​.

User Behavior Analytics (UBA) monitors user activities and detects anomalous behavior such as unauthorized data access or exfiltration, including when employees attempt to copy sensitive customer contact information before leaving. UBA can alert security teams to insider threats proactively.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) (A) detects unauthorized changes to files but is less effective against data exfiltration by insiders. Network Access Control (NAC) (B) controls device access to the network, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) (C) detect suspicious network activity but do not specifically analyze user behaviors.

UBA is a critical tool for insider threat detection covered in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.