8010 Exam Dumps : Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Exam

Historical Simulation VaR is conceptually very straightforward: actual prices as seen during the observation period (1 year, 2 years, or other) become the 'scenarios' forming the basis of the valuation of the portfolio. For each scenario, full revaluationis performed, and a P&L data set becomes available from which the desired loss quantile can be extracted.

Historical simulation is based upon actually seen prices over a selected historical period, therefore no distributional assumptions are required. Thedata is what the data is, and is the distribution. Statement I is therefore not correct.

It uses full revaluation for each historical scenario, therefore statement II is correct.

Since the prices are taken from actual historical observations, a correlationmatrix is not required at all. Statement III is therefore incorrect (it would be true for Monte Carlo and parametric Var).

Historical simulation VaR suffers from the limitation that if enough representative data points are no available during the historical observation period from which the scenarios are drawn, the results would be inaccurate. This is likely to be the case for new products. Therefore Statement IV is incorrect.

All the factors listed above contributed to systemic failure. Liquidity risk was not on the radar of regulators, and was a second priority for risk managers, and most of the focus was oncapital adequacy as liquidity was thought to be an unlikely problem. Liquidity, regardless of capital adequacy, was the primary cause of failure of a number of institutions during the crisis.

Similarly, stress tests proved to be much milder than the shocks that were actually experienced, and the strategy of 'originate and distribute' implied that the mortgage and other debt originators had no interest in any due diligence as they intended to package and sell the debt to other investors.

Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

All of the distributions referred to in the question can be used to model the loss severity distribution for op risk.Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.