PRMIA 8010 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

Incremental capital (or incremental VaR, depending upon the context), is a measure of the change in the capital (or VaR) requirements if a certain change is made to a portfolio.It uses the 'before' and 'after' approach, ie find out what the capital requirement or VaR will be without the change, and what it will be after the change. The difference is the incremental capital or incremental VaR. It helps measure the change in risk as a result of a particular action, eg a change in a position.

Marginal capital or VaR on the other hand is a method to break down the capital requirement or the VaR so that it can be assigned to individual positions within the portfolio. The total of marginal capital or marginal VaR for all the positions in a portfolio adds up to the total capital requirements or total VaR. Note that marginal VaR is also called component VaR.

Therefore incremental capital is the correct answer to this question. The other choices are incorrect. In the exam, the question may be phrased differently, so try to keep in mind the different between incremental and marginal capital, which can be a bit confusing given what these terms mean in plain English.

Current replacement values are a very poor measure of the credit exposure from a derivative contract, because the future value of these instruments is unpredictable, ie is stochastic, and the range of values it can take increases the further ahead in the future we look. Therefore it is common for credit exposures for derivatives to be measured using forward looking exposure profiles, which are distributions of the expected value of the derivative at the time horizon for which credit risk is being measured. To be conservative, a high enough quintile of this distribution is taken as the 'loan equivalent value' of the derivative as the exposure.Choice 'c' is the correct answer.

The notional value of derivative contracts generally tends to be quite high and unrelated to their economic value or the counterparty exposure. Therefore notional value is irrelevant.

Assuming timeinvariance and the Markov property, it is easy to calculate the transition matrix for any time period as P^n, where P is the given transition matrix for one period and n the number of time periods that we need to compute the new transition matrix for. ThusChoice 'b' is the correct answer.