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Total 525 questions

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Question 1

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Question 2

Delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the __________.

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure

B.

sow

C.

Project Charter

D.

Project Scope Statement

Question 3

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

Question 4

Which of the following provides the least accurate in estimating?

Options:

A.

Rough order of magnitude

B.

Budget estimate

C.

WBS estimate

D.

Definitive estimate

Question 5

Which time estimating tools estimate the basis for activity durations can be quantitatively determined by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the productivity rate?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Funding limit reconciliation

C.

Reserves analysis

D.

None of the above

Question 6

Which of the following are parts of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Control Scope

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 7

Which of the following is conflict resolution technique?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

Question 8

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Question 9

You are the project manager of the MKTG Project. The project has a budget of $200,000 and is expected to last 2 years. The project is now 20 percent complete and is on schedule. What is the BAC?

Options:

A.

$-00,000

B.

$200,00

C.

$50,000

D.

None of the above

Question 10

Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

Options:

A.

Has become part of the business processes

B.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

Question 11

If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

Question 12

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

Question 13

Most change requests are a result of _______.

Options:

A.

Value added change (enhancements)

B.

Schedule constraints

C.

Regulatory constraints

D.

Improvement to the project scope

Question 14

Which of the following is not a form a leadership power?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Foimal

D.

Coercive

Question 15

Which document is best suited for tracking the assignment of all resources to specific tasks in a project?

Options:

A.

RACI mAl,x

B.

sow

C.

Staffing management plan D)0 CPI

Question 16

Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

Options:

A.

Project justification

B.

Project product

C.

Project manager authority

D.

Project objective

Question 17

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Options:

A.

Control Scope system

B.

VeiirV Scope

C.

Scope Charter

D.

Scope Management plan

Question 18

Which of the following are the inputs of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Requirements document created in collect requirements process

B.

Project files from previous projects

C.

Project Charter

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 19

Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

shaie

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Question 20

When you are developing the estimates for project, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities that comprise each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Bottom-up estimating

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Question 21

What is the lowest level in a work breakdown structure?

Options:

A.

Project task

B.

w°rl< package

C.

sow

D.

None

Question 22

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

Options:

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

WBS

Question 24

Who applies project selection methods to decide whether to accept or reject a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project team

C.

Project manager

D.

Senior Management

Question 25

You are the project manager of a project and budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members that exceed expectations. A project team member that is motivated by the chance to earn cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory

Options:

A.

Hierarchy of needs

B.

Expectancy theory

C.

Achievement theory

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 26

Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be ______.

Options:

A.

True, real, or certain

B.

True, real, or uncertain

C.

Real

D.

Verbal

Question 27

Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Prototypes

D.

Organizational process assets

Question 28

If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)?

Options:

A.

$0.2

B.

$5

C.

$44

D.

$66

Question 29

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-$8,000

B.

-$2,000

C.

$2,000

D.

$8,000

Question 30

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Question 31

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Contract administration

B.

Direction and management of project execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Qualitative risk analysis

Question 32

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Question 33

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Question 34

Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.

Resource B's role is that of a:

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

Work breakdown manager

D.

Program manager

Question 35

What is a cost of nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Rework

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Testing

Question 36

Which of the following will be required to perform simula-tion for schedule risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Activity list and activity attributes

B.

Schedule network diagram and duration estimates

C.

Schedule data and activity resource requirements

D.

Milestone list and resource breakdown structure

Question 37

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Question 38

Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Top-down estimating

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Question 39

The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Identify Stakeholders

D.

Determine Budget

Question 40

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities?

Options:

A.

Schedule development

B.

Activity sequencing

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

Question 41

The risk register contains which of the following?

Options:

A.

Identified risks and potential responses

B.

Identified risks and updates to scope baseline

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk related contract decisions

Question 42

What is an output of Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Work performance measurements

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Work performance information

Question 43

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

B.

Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)

C.

Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

D.

Time and material contracts (T&M)

Question 44

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure update

C.

Project network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Question 45

What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Question 46

Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Risk response planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Manage stakeholders

Question 47

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Question 48

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Question 49

Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Plan Communications

D.

Collect Requirements

Question 50

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control Chart

C.

Run Chart

D.

Pareto Chart

Question 51

Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Risks

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Question 52

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Question 53

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

Question 54

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Define Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 55

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P'oject contract

D.

Project closing document

Question 56

A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Define Activities

Question 57

When should a project manager be assigned to a project?

Options:

A.

As early in the project as feasible.

B.

Preferably before much project planning has been done.

C.

At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D.

All of the above.

Question 58

You are working with an organization and you found that one stakeholder not disclosing all of the costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this CAPM is constructing a WBS that does not include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. What you should do?

Options:

A.

Talk to the CAPM about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project

B.

Confront the other project manager immediately

C.

Mail t0 PMI headquarters

D.

Ignore it

Question 59

Which of the following activity is not performed as part of the direct and manage project execution process?

Options:

A.

Monitor implementation of approved changes

B.

Validate deliverables

C.

Staff, train, and manage the project team

D.

Manage cisks and implement risk responses

Question 60

Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

Question 61

The scope management provides:

Options:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

Question 62

If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

Options:

A.

Historical information

B.

WBS

C.

Business plans

D.

RBS

Question 63

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 10 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

45

B.

12

C.

10

D.

5

Question 64

What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.

Options:

A.

Resource planning

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Question 65

Information should be communicated to __________.

Options:

A.

Everyone in the communication plan

B.

Everyone on the team

C.

Sponsor

D.

Team 'eacl

Question 66

You are the project manager of a project. Your project just went into integration mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

B.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

C.

Resources are being assigned to other areas of the business

D.

None of the above

Question 67

You are the project manager for a Project. Project is a global project. Some peoples are working from US and some are from India. Client says budget should not cost more than $12 million. Because of the global concerns, the final budget must be in U.S. dollars. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internationalization

B.

Budget constraint

C.

Management constraint

D.

Quality constraint

Question 68

At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Initial stage

B.

Closing stage

C.

Execution stage

D.

None of the above

Question 69

Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Project verification

C.

Project control

D.

Product scope

Question 70

In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?

Options:

A.

Projectized organization

B.

Balanced Matrix organization

C.

Strong Matrix

D.

Weak Matrix organization

Question 71

A change requests can occur due to:

Options:

A.

An external event such as a change in government regulation.

B.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.

C.

An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.

D.

all of the above

Question 72

Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?

Options:

A.

Management Contingency Reserve

B.

Management Overheads

C.

Project Management Planing

D.

Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

Question 73

You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Planning process

Question 74

In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team.

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Outside

D.

Assigned

Question 75

Stakeholder influence is greatest at the ______ of the project.

Options:

A.

Beginning

B.

Closing

C.

Controlling

D.

Executing

Question 76

Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Project controls

Question 77

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.

Options:

A.

Likely events

B.

Complex activities

C.

Complex schedules

D.

Uncertain occurrences

Question 78

Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Total 525 questions