Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)
A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.
Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)
Which risks inherent to real estate sector carry the highest AML/CFT risk? (Select Two.)
The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Choose three.)
When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)
Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)
Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)
Which of the below would be relevant money laundering red flags for life insurance companies? (Select Two.)
The purpose of a risk appetite statement is to:
When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?
When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:
A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.
What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?
According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?
An institution is looking to alter an existing threshold-based monitoring scenario because it is generating too many alerts that do not yield suspicious activity reports.
Documentation submitted to the relevant committee for supporting this proposal should include details on: (Choose three.)
What is the relationship between the EU Anti-money Laundering Directives (AMLD) and local anti-money laundering (AML) regulations in European Union (EU) member states, in terms of their relevance for, applicability to, and impact on EU banks? (Select Two.)
The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.
Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)
Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)
Common risks and red flags associated with trade finance clients may include: (Choose four.)
According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). potential risk indicators related to money laundering proceeds from environmental crimes include. (Select Two.)
Which suspicious activity may be the strongest indicator of money laundering through a casino?
The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)
What is the first step that an investigator should take when beginning a financial investigation into a potential suspicious activity?
Which action should a financial institution take when it receives a grand-jury subpoena regarding a customer?
Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?
Which principle about safeguarding privacy and data should an auditor adhere to when performing an AML investigation?
Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)
Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)
In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.
Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)
An employee at a financial institution (Fl) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate. Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?
Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)
Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.
Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)
A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.
Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) routinely publishes a catalogue of jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring which is commonly called the:
A long-term client of an insurance company makes changes to a policy that require payment of an additional lump sum. The amount payable is high, though within the client's means based on the KYC information collected. The payment is made via a company in another jurisdiction that is known to have lax AML controls.
Which indicator of suspicious activity is present?
Which red flags could indicate increased terror financing and money laundering risks related to cultural objects? (Select Three.)
According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation regarding "tipping off," which of the following statements accurately describes the obligations of reporting entities?
A bank in the Netherlands has been requested to share information about a series of transactions and related customers with a bank in Italy. Both banks are subject to European Union jurisdiction.
Which factor is the most important to consider before the Dutch bank shares the requested information with the Italian bank?
A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:
Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)
A compliance analyst has recently investigated an account where money was deposited in amounts below the reporting limit and almost entirely withdrawn in a foreign country.
Which type of money laundering is the compliance analyst potentially identifying?
An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.
Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)
The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.
Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)
A real estate buyer purchases multiple high-value properties in cash through a series of transactions in a short period of time and without any clear economic justification.
Which of the following is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the real estate sector?
Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.
Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?
Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?
An AML analyst at a bank is investigating cases triggered by transaction monitoring alerts.
Which circumstances might cause the analyst to suspect a case involves terrorist financing? (Select Two.)
A compliance officer is completing a case and has determined that the events do not merit filing a suspicious activity report (SAR).
Which of the following should be included in the case notes to justify not filing a SAR? (Choose two.)
Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?
Which of the following can be considered a reliable, independent source document, data, or information?
How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)
What should a financial institution (FI) do in response to a formal law enforcement request to produce documents?
What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)
Which of the following statements describe the strengths associated with public-private partnerships (PPPs)? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are included in the 11 Immediate Outcomes outlined in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology for assessing technical compliance with the FATF Recommendations and the effectiveness of AML/CFT/CPF systems during mutual evaluations? (Select Three.)
Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)
Professions such as lawyers, accountants, and trust and company service providers (TCSPs) are sometimes referred to as "gatekeepers" because they:
Which of the following entities could potentially pose a higher money laundering risk and require additional review prior to onboarding? (Select Two.)
Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)
An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.
Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?
According to the Egmont Group, which benefits do public-private partnerships (PPPs) provide to Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)? (Select Three.)
Under the Egmont Group Principles, information exchange among financial intelligence units (FIUs) should be conducted:
Which of the following statements best describes the financial crime risk associated with gatekeepers?
A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.
Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?
A bank has been fined for failing to take reasonable care to establish and maintain effective systems and controls for high-risk customers, including politically exposed persons (PEPs).
Which typical financial crime risks should the bank have addressed? (Choose three.)
Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?
A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.
Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?
The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.
Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?
Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.
Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)
From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:
Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?
Which scenario indicates potential money laundering activity by a lawyer?
A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.
How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?
The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)
Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)
Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)
Money laundering has social and economic impacts, especially within developing countries. A high volume of money laundering in a country may: (Select Two.)
What key element contributes to the effectiveness of AML training programs'?
Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure? (Select Three.)
A financial institution's (FI's) policy is to apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) for every new client to ensure the effectiveness of the program.
How should a consultant advise the FI's management team?
Which of the following are key financial crime risks associated with real estate companies? (Choose four.)
Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)
News published in Country A reports that a politically exposed person (PEP) had received a bribe from a transnational company headquartered in a developing country of approximately USS1.5 million deposited into on account at a financial institution (Fl> located in Country B Both countries are members of the Egmont Group The account where the money was deposited belongs to the PEP's immediate family member. To corroborate the facts, the PIU of Country A sent a formal request via secure communication channels for further information from its counterpart FIU in Country B.
According to Egmont principles, the FIU of Country B can:
What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)
At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:
In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:
Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act permits the US government to seize funds deposited in a US correspondent account of a foreign bank, creating extraterritorial impact?
A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.
Which category of predicate crime is taking place?
A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.
Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)
Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.
What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)
As emphasized in the Basel Committee guidance for "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism", the third line of defense, or audit function, should:
Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?
Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)
A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.
Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?