8006 Exam Dumps : Exam I: Finance Theory Financial Instruments Financial Markets - 2015 Edition

This is a trick question, no great science to it. Remember that the 'present value of a basis point' refers to PV01, which is the same as BPV (basis point value) referred to in the PRMIA handbook. In other textbooks, the same term is also variously called 'DV01' (dollar value of a basis point). Remember these other terms too.

PV01, or the present value of a basis point, is the change in the value of a bond (or other fixed income security) from a 1 basis point change in the yield. PV01 is calculated as (Price * Modified Duration/10,000).

It is important to note the distinction between the clearing house and the exchange itself. The clearing house does not get involved with physical delivery, nor does it provide any dispute settlement services. It only makes sure that cash is settled as and when due between the members. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer

Explanation:

If the spot rate is 1.1010 and the forward is 1.1040, the swap rate is 30 "points" (= 1.1040 - 1.1010). The annualized swap premium is the swap premium divided by the spot rate, and therefore =0.0030/1.1010 =0.27%, or 27 basis points.