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Total 288 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Question 1

During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?

Options:

A.

Try to recreate the incident before reporting

B.

Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem

C.

Send an email to the developer and not report the bug

D.

Report the incident as is without any further action

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Question 2

Given the following review process main activities and specific review activities:

a.Planning

b.Initiate review

c.Issue communication and analysis

d.Fixing and reporting

1.Creating defect reports

2.Estimating effort and timeframe

3.Recording updated status of defects

4.Selecting the people to participate

5.Distributing the work product and other material

6.Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

Options:

A.

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

B.

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

C.

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

D.

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

Question 3

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

Question 4

Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Options:

A.

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

B.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

C.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

D.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

Question 5

A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Options:

A.

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

B.

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

C.

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

D.

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

Question 6

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

Question 7

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Options:

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

Question 8

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

Question 9

ON NO: 94

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

Question 10

Which of the following statements about white-box testing is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Static testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques during code reviews.

B.

White-box testing allows suggesting test cases for increasing coverage levels which are based on objective measures

C.

Achieving full code coverage for a component or a system ensures that it has been fully tested

D.

Black-box testing can benefit from using code-related white-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code.

Question 11

A test score indicator for students produces a performance score based on a combination of the number of consecutive hours studied (below 4 hours, 4 to 8 hours. 9 to 12 hours or above 12 hours) and the average intensity of focus on the material during the study time (low, medium or high).

Given the following test cases:

hours intensity score

T1 3 low55

T2 14 high 95

T3 9 low75

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of all valid INPUT equivalence partitions?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 12

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

Question 13

Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

B.

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

C.

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

D.

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

Question 14

A test status report SHOULD:

Options:

A.

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

Question 15

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

Question 16

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Options:

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

Question 17

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

Question 18

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 19

Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?

Options:

A.

The application might not be able to provide the expected responsiveness under a load of up-lo 300 concurrent users

B.

Failure in acquiring an adequate and test automation tool

C.

A wrong configuration of the test environment that causes incidents related to the environment and not to the software under test

D.

The development team lacks knowledge of the technology on which the product is based

Question 20

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

Options:

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

Question 21

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

Question 22

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

Question 23

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Question 24

Which of the following is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

Options:

A.

Repeating the same test cases will continue to find new defects, even after dozens of executions

B.

A small number of modules contains the most defects

C.

Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful

D.

Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions

Question 25

From a testing perspective, configuration management

Options:

A.

Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.

B.

Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.

C.

Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality

D.

Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.

Question 26

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

Question 27

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question 28

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

Question 29

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 30

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques rely on the experience of testers to identify the root causes of defects found by black-box test techniques

B.

Some of the most common test basis used by white-box test techniques include user stories, use cases and business processes

C.

Experience-based test techniques are often useful to detect hidden defects that have not been targeted by black-box test techniques

D.

The primary goal of experience-based test techniques is to design test cases that can be easily automated using a GUI-based test automation tool

Question 31

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

Question 32

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 33

A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Options:

A.

V-Model

B.

Agile

C.

Waterfall

D.

Prototyping

Question 34

Given the following statements:

1.It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification

2.It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle

3.It can detect the failures in the running application

4.It can help eliminate defects in user stories

5.It can verify externally visible behaviors

Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?

Options:

A.

1,3, 4.5

B.

2,4,5

C.

1,2,4

D.

1,2, 3. 4,5

Question 35

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 36

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question 37

Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.

B.

Static testing reduces testing costs and time.

C.

Static testing increases development costs and time.

D.

Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.

Question 38

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 39

Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Options:

A.

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

B.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

C.

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

D.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

Question 40

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

Question 41

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 42

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 43

Which of the following BEST describes exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is a suitable test technique which may replace both black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Exploratory testing is a valid and useful black-box test technique since it focuses on test cases related to the architecture and design of a system

C.

Exploratory testing requires both solid specifications and much project time available for test execution

D.

Exploratory testing may be used within defined time periods, during which the tester may follow a test charter as a guide

Question 44

Which of the following software development models BEST exemplifies a model that does NOT support the principle of early testing?

Options:

A.

The iterative development model

B.

The V-model

C.

The Waterfall model

D.

The incremental development model

Question 45

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Question 46

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

Question 47

Given the following state model of sales order software:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT a product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor software usability

B.

Failure-prone software is delivered

C.

Problems in defining the right requirements

D.

Software does not perform the intended functions

Question 49

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

Question 50

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

Question 51

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

Question 52

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Question 53

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution

B.

Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.

C.

Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.

D.

Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.

Question 54

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

Question 55

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

Question 56

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

Question 57

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

Question 58

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

Question 59

Which of the following statements about the typical activities of a formal review process is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Individual review is only mandatory when the size of the work product under review is too large to cover at the review meeting

B.

Various review techniques that may be applied by participants during individual review are described in the ISO/IEC/IEEE 29119-3 standard.

C.

Choosing which standards to follow during the review process is usually made during review planning.

D.

One of the main goals of the review meeting is to make sure that all participants are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the review process

Question 60

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Question 61

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

Options:

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

Question 62

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Options:

A.

Traceability may be required by IT governance rules

B.

Traceability may help evaluate the extent of test coverage

C.

Traceability may allow testing to be auditable

D.

Traceability may make it harder to understand the impact of changes

Question 63

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

C.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

D.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

Question 64

During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.

The team agreed on the following:

1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.

2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.

The result of the first round of planning poker:

Team MemberEstimation

BusinessLarge

DevelopmentExtra-extra-large

TestingExtra-extra-large

Which of the following options best represent the team’s next actions?

Options:

A.

The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.

B.

The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.

C.

Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.

D.

the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

Question 66

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Question 67

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5 passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct current password, but enters an invalid password

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

Options:

A.

The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

B.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail confirming that the password has been successfully changed

C.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally views the dedicated error

D.

The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful

Question 68

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

Question 69

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

Question 70

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

Options:

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

Question 71

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

Question 72

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

Options:

A.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21

B.

Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.

C.

The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)

D.

Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round

Question 73

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.

Defects cluster together

Question 74

Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Determining the people who will be involved in the review

B.

Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting

C.

Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review

D.

Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review

Question 75

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Options:

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

Question 76

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

More subjective assessment

B.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

C.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

D.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

Question 77

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

Question 78

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

Question 79

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

Question 80

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

Question 81

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

Options:

A.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

B.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

C.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

D.

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Question 82

A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

Options:

A.

It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B.

It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C.

It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D.

It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

Question 83

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 84

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

Question 85

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

Question 86

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

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