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Total 399 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Question 2

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

Question 3

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

Options:

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

Question 4

Calculate the measurement error SD for the following estimates done using three point estimation technique-Most optimistic effort (a) -120 person days Most likely effort (m) -180 person days Most pessimistic effort (b) - 240 person days

Options:

A.

180

B.

120

C.

197

D.

20

Question 5

Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

Options:

A.

To automate tests.

B.

To prepare and acquire test data.

C.

To set up the test environment.

D.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

Question 6

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes branch testing?

Options:

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

Question 7

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Level of risk of the product or features

B.

Budget to do testing

C.

A particular tester involved in testing

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 9

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor software usability

B.

Failure-prone software is delivered

C.

Problems in defining the right requirements

D.

Software does not perform the intended functions

Question 11

Which of the following options cover the test types performed during typical system testing phase:

I. Usability

II Requirements based scenarios

III Testing parts of the code in isolation

IV Correct order of parameters in API calls

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

I. II

C.

II. IV

D.

III. IV

Question 12

The following table shows six test cases TC01 to TC06 with their priorities and dependencies.

Schedule the test execution of the specified test case set according to the priorities and dependencies. Since the test time is very tight, the number of test cases should be minimized as much as possible, but all very important test cases must be included.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

TC04, TC05, and TC06 can be deleted.

B.

TC05 and TC06 can be deleted.

C.

TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

D.

TC03, TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

Question 13

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

B.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

C.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

D.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

Question 14

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

B.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

C.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

D.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report

Question 16

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Options:

A.

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

B.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

C.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

D.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

Question 17

The following state diagram is given as basis for state transition testing and contains only valid transitions:

Explanation of the state diagram: States are depicted as nodes. The initial state is I, the final state is F. A state transition is depicted as a directed arrow with the initiating event as a label, e. g. from I to S1 with event a, and is also written as a triple (I,a,S1). Note: A test case is a sequence of events that initiates the corresponding sequence of state transitions.

The state diagram contains the following 7 state transitions:

(I, a, S1)

(S1, a, S2), (S1, b, S3), (S1, c, F)

(S2, a, S3)

(S3, a, S2), (S3, b, F)

What is the minimum number of test cases to achieve 100% coverage of all valid state transitions in the diagram?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

8

Question 18

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

D.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

Question 19

Consider the following user story and its acceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the "Agnotoly" association, I want to be able to pay the association’s dues through an automatic payment method so that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

    The member can only pay with ‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

    The member must register their cell phone number.

    The member must register the credit card in the payment system.

    The member must select a payment method (monthly or annual).

    The member must accept the terms and conditions for the selected method.

    If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends an OTP (one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

    The payment method is registered only after OTP verification.

    Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

    Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

    Payments were processed monthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

B.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

C.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

D.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Question 20

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

Question 21

Which of the following statements is true?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

Options:

A.

Errors are the inevitable result of software failure.

B.

Defects in the program code may be caused by environmental conditions.

C.

Defects in the program code may result in failures in the program during execution.

D.

Any deviation of the actual from the expected result represents an error.

Question 22

A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

B.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

C.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

D.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

Question 23

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Options:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3

Question 24

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

Question 25

You are testing the download process of a mobile phone application.

For which to the following capabilities to the system you need to design a nonfunctional test?

Options:

A.

It was easy to locate, download and install the application

B.

The application was correctly downloaded

C.

The application created an installation log file in a given folder

D.

The application installed only after the user's approval

Question 26

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

Options:

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews

D.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

Question 27

You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?

i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.

II. Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.

Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.

iv. Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.

v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv and v

B.

i, ii and iii

C.

i, iii and v

D.

iii. iv and v

Question 28

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7.

B.

6.

C.

5.

D.

3.

Question 29

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2. C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3. B2. C1. D4

Question 30

Given the following statements:

1.It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification

2.It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle

3.It can detect the failures in the running application

4.It can help eliminate defects in user stories

5.It can verify externally visible behaviors

Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?

Options:

A.

1,3, 4.5

B.

2,4,5

C.

1,2,4

D.

1,2, 3. 4,5

Question 31

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

Options:

A.

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

B.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

C.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

D.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?

Options:

A.

The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites

B.

The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests

C.

The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found

D.

The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model

Question 33

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

Options:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

Question 34

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

Question 35

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Options:

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

Question 36

Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Options:

A.

The developer

B.

The customer

C.

The development manager

D.

The test leader

Question 37

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

Question 38

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 39

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 40

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

Question 41

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques.

B.

Experience-based test techniques.

C.

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.

White-box test techniques.

Question 42

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

Question 43

A test status report SHOULD:

Options:

A.

Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them

B.

Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product

C.

Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.

D.

Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.

Question 44

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 45

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Question 46

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

Question 47

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Functional Testing

B.

Code inspection

C.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

D.

Coverage analysis

Question 48

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question 49

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing during exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question 50

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

Question 51

A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Options:

A.

Identification of unreachable code

B.

Report on adherence to the coding standards

C.

Number of comment lines

D.

Number of source code lines

Question 52

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Question 53

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

Question 54

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

Question 55

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

Question 56

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

Question 57

Consider the following iteration planning tasks where a tester can provide value:

    Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

    Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

    Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

Options:

A.

Determining the test strategy

B.

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

C.

Planning the testing for the release

D.

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

Question 58

Consider the following statements (I to V) about software testing:

I. Can be applied to non-executable work products.

II. Can be used to measure performance efficiency.

III. Can lead to the detection of defects.

IV. Can find defects directly.

V. Can identify unexpected behaviors caused by potential defects.

Which ONE of the following options is the list that characterizes static tests the BEST?

Options:

A.

Statements I, III, and IV

B.

Statements II, IV, and V

C.

Statements I, II, and IV

D.

Statements II, III, and V

Question 59

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

Options:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

Question 60

Scenario 2 “Big Drop”:

A company “The Big Drop” provides bulk discounts and frequent customer discounts as follows:

How many possible decision rules can be extracted from this table?

Options:

A.

5 decision rules

B.

6 decision rules

C.

32 decision rules

D.

8 decision rules

Question 61

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

Question 62

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

Options:

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Question 63

Which ONE of the following options is a PRODUCT risk and NOT a PROJECT risk?

Options:

A.

Incorrect calculation logic in the software, leading to inaccurate results.

B.

Poor communication between team members, making project management more difficult.

C.

Staff shortages in the project leading to scheduling problems.

D.

Delays in the delivery of work products by the project team.

Question 64

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9.5001

B.

10.5000

C.

10, 11.4999, 5000r 5001

D.

9. 10.5000,5001

Question 65

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

Question 66

Which of the following best describes the way in which statement coverage is measured?

Options:

A.

Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.

B.

It is not possible to accurately measure statement coverage.

C.

Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.

D.

Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the test, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.

Question 67

Which of the following statements best describes the value of maintaining traceability in software testing?

Options:

A.

Traceability helps to identify the root cause of defects and improve the quality of the software product.

B.

Traceability helps to monitor project progress and assess the coverage.

C.

Traceability of test results to risks and residual expenditure helps evaluate requirements coverage.

D.

Traceability helps to identify the root causes of failures and to set priorities for retest and regression testing.

Question 68

Select the roles required in a formal review:

Options:

A.

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

B.

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

C.

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

D.

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Question 69

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

Question 70

Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?

i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.

II. Current quality of the test object.

Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.

iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.

v. All the above.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Only i and ii.

B.

Only i and iii.

C.

Only I, ii and iv.

D.

Only v.

Question 71

Which activity is NOT documented in a test plan?

Options:

A.

Defining the quality assurance approach

B.

Defining the test approach

C.

Selecting the metrics for test monitoring

D.

Setting the budget for the test activities

Question 72

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

Question 73

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Options:

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

Question 74

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

Question 75

Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

Options:

A.

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

B.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

C.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

D.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

Question 76

Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.

Options:

A.

Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more

B.

Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15

C.

negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15

D.

Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15

Question 77

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

Question 78

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

Question 79

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

Question 80

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

Question 81

You are responsible for applying the correct technique for a review of the requirements document for a project to develop a new software application. You identify the reviewers and the required roles, including the meeting leader, who is the requirements document author, and a separate role for a scribe. Additionally, you decide to take a relatively informal approach to the requirements review. The goal of the review is to find defects in the requirements document, such as omissions, Inconsistencies, and duplications. Another goal of the review is to improve the software application's usability and accessibility by considering the various stakeholders' viewpoints.

Which of the following statements BEST describes this scenario?

Options:

A.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a perspective-based review technique

B.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a checklist-based review technique

C.

This scenario is using a walkthrough review type and a perspective-based review technique

D.

This scenario is using a pair review type and a checklist-based review technique

Question 82

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

Question 83

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

Question 84

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

B.

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

C.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

D.

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

Question 85

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

Question 86

Which test level aims to gain the users' confidence in the system, especially in the fulfillment of the system's operational and performance capabilities?

Options:

A.

System testing

B.

Acceptance testing

C.

Component integration testing

D.

System integration testing

Question 87

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

Question 88

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 89

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Question 90

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Question 91

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test case TC_59, the actual result for t = 35 degrees Celsius is OUTPUT = X instead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

Options:

A.

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.

Description of the structure of the test team

D.

Expected results and actual results

Question 92

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the differentiation of black-box techniques, white-box techniques, and experience-based testing?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

B.

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

C.

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

D.

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

Question 93

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

Question 94

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of a test plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

Question 95

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY NOT part of a test progress report?

Options:

A.

Obstacles and their workarounds

B.

A detailed assessment of product quality

C.

Test metrics to show the current status of the test process

D.

New or changed risks

Question 96

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

Question 97

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 98

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

Question 99

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

Question 100

Given the following requirement:

Requirement ID: 2 8

Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee

Detailed Description

An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but

1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.

2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.

3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.

Age should be an integer of 0 or above.

Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value.

B.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.

C.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value.

D.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

Question 101

Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

Question 102

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

Options:

A.

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

B.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

C.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

D.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

Question 103

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

Question 104

Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.

B.

Static testing reduces testing costs and time.

C.

Static testing increases development costs and time.

D.

Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.

Question 105

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

Question 106

In a two-hour uninterrupted test session, performed as part of an iteration on an Agile project, a heuristic checklist was used to help the tester focus on some specific usability issues of a web application.

The unscripted tests produced by the tester's experience during such session belong to which one of the following testing quadrants?

Options:

A.

Q1

B.

Q2

C.

Q3

D.

Q4

Question 107

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

Question 108

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

Question 109

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I. Ill

B.

I, IV

C.

II. IV

D.

II. Ill

Question 110

In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.

Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?

I.Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.

ii.Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.

iii.Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.

iv.Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.

Options:

A.

ii and iii

B.

i and iii

C.

i and ii

D.

ii and iv

Question 111

A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

Test design.

B.

Test analysis

C.

Test Implementation.

D.

Test monitoring and control

Question 112

A typical objective of testing is to

Options:

A.

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Question 113

In a review, which of the following is the responsibility of the manager?

Options:

A.

Performing detailed review based on past experience

B.

Ensuring that sufficient time is available for review

C.

Measuring the performance of each reviewer

D.

Organizing the logistics of the review meeting

Question 114

Which statement corresponds to one of the 7 principles of testing?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

Options:

A.

Exhaustive testing can show the absence of defects.

B.

To detect new defects, existing regression test cases must be updated regularly.

C.

Late testing saves time and money, especially with scarce resources.

D.

Fixing all detected defects ensures the success of the system under test.

Question 115

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

Question 116

Atypical generic skill required for the role of tester is the ability to

Options:

A.

Take on the role of developer to meet challenging project deadlines

B.

Assume leadership aimed at imposing decisions on the rest of the team.

C.

Use tools to make the execution of repetitive testing tasks more efficient.

D.

Determine the corrective actions to get a test project on track in case of deviations from the test plan

Question 117

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

Question 118

To be able to define testable acceptance criteria, specific topics need to be addressed. In the table below are the topics matched to an incorrect description. Match the topics (the left column) with the correct description (the right column)

TopicDescription

Options:

A.

How the system performs the specific behaviour.

8: Quality characteristicsB: A sequence of actions between an external actor and the system, to accomplish a specific goal or business task.

B.

ScenariosC: The externally observable behaviour with user actions as input operating under certain configurations.

C.

Business rulesD; Description of the connections between the system to be developed and the outside world.

D.

External interfacesE: Activities that can only be performed in the system under certain conditions defined by outside procedures and constraints.

E.

A to C, B to A, C to B. D to E and E to D

F.

A to E, B to A, C to B, D to C and E to D

G.

A to C, B to A, C to B, D to D and E to E

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