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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

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Question 2

Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Options:

A.

Because independent testers make fewer assumptions than developers

B.

Because independent testers are isolated from the development team

C.

Because independent testers can verify assumptions made during specification and implementation of the system

D.

Because independent testers have a greater sense of responsibility for quality than developers

Question 3

A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

S2 and O4

B.

S4 and O2

C.

S4 and O4

D.

S2 and O2

Question 4

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Question 5

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

Question 6

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 7

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Question 9

Which of the following test design techniques is classified as a structure-based (white box) technique? [K1]

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Decision table testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Statement testing

Question 10

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 11

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

Question 12

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Options:

A.

$28,000

B.

$1,500

C.

$33,501

D.

$5,000

Question 13

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Question 14

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

Options:

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

Question 16

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

Question 17

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 18

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

Question 19

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

Question 20

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

Question 21

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Question 22

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Question 23

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Options:

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

Question 24

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Question 25

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

Question 26

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Options:

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

Question 27

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

Question 28

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 29

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

Question 30

Which of the following are valid test objectives?

(i)Finding defects.

(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information.

(iii)Preventing defects.

(iv)Debugging the code.

Options:

A.

i, ii and iii

B.

i, ii and iv

C.

ii and iii

D.

i and iv

Question 31

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

Question 32

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

Question 33

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 34

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

Question 35

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

Question 36

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Question 37

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Question 38

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

Question 39

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

Options:

A.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

B.

Scribe — Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Author — Identify potential defects in the work product under review

D.

Facilitator — Fixes defects in the work product under review

Question 40

Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test techniques?

1. Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the requirements, use cases and user stories

2. Test cases are based on the test basis which may include the software architecture or code

3. Test cases can show deviations from the requirements

4. These test techniques are applicable to both functional and non-functional testing

5. Tests are based on knowledge of developers, users and other stakeholders

Black - Black-box test techniques White - White-box test techniques Experience - Experience-based test techniques

Options:

A.

Black -1.2 White - 3. 4 Experience - 5

B.

Black -2.3 White -1.5 Experience - 4

C.

Black -2.3 White - 1 Experience - 4. 5

D.

Black -1.3.4 White - 2 Experience - 5

Question 41

Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to be used as a basis for estimating testing effort?

Options:

A.

Requirements for documentation

B.

Quality of the test basis Work

C.

Breakdown Structure

D.

Skills of the test team

Question 42

Integration testing has following characteristics.

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV It includes non-functional tests

Options:

A.

I. l and IV are correct

B.

I Ill and IV are correct

C.

TI is correct

D.

II and III are correct

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 44

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Options:

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

Question 45

Which of the following processes is related to ensuring the integrity of the testware?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Test automation

C.

Build release

D.

Project management

Question 46

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B.

100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.

C.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.

D.

It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

Question 47

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach

C.

Burndown chads used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

Question 48

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

Question 49

Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

Options:

A.

Component test

B.

Feature test

C.

Functional test

D.

Subsystem test

Question 50

Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

Options:

A.

The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.

B.

The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.

C.

The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.

D.

In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.

Question 51

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The test environment should correspond to the production environment

III. Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V. Testing is normally performed by testers

VI. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component-V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance-VI

B.

Component -1 Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV

C.

Component - IV Integration -1 System-VI Acceptance-V

D.

Component-VI Integration - IV System -1 Acceptance-III

Question 52

In which development life cycle model is regression testing an increasingly important activity as the project progresses?

Options:

A.

V-model.

B.

Waterfall.

C.

Scrum.

D.

Progressive.

Question 53

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades. The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89. up to 100 – A

Above 79. up to 89 - B

Above 69. up to 79 – C

Above 59. up to 69 - D Below 60 - F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58, 59, 70, 80

B.

69, 79, 80, 89, 90

C.

74, 79, 84, 85, 89

D.

79,89,90,99,100

Question 54

Which of the following BEST describes how configuration management supports the test process?

Options:

A.

It enables the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control.

B.

It enables the tester to systematically design test conditions, cases and data.

C.

It enables incidents to be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.

D.

It helps the test manager to decide how best to integrate and coordinate the testing activities into the software life cycle.

Question 55

Which of the following DOES NOT describe "component testing'?

Options:

A.

Component testing tests interfaces between modules and interactions of different parts of a system.

B.

Component testing occurs with access to the code being tested and with the support of a development environment, such as a unit test framework or debugging tool

C.

Component testing verifies the functioning of. software modules, programs, objects, classes, etc. that are separately testable.

D.

In component testing stubs, drivers and simulators may be usefully utilized to facilitate tester activity

Question 56

You need to test the login page of a web site The page contains fields for user name and password Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

Question 57

Which statement about Static Testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static testing can be applied to any work product that participants know how to read and understand.

B.

Static testing must only be applied to final work products that have been signed off.

C.

Static testing must be conducted by users of the product being tested.

D.

Static testing executes the code to verify the functionality is as expected.

Question 58

You are testing an e-commerce system which sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority in getting this resolved. The development team is waiting for more information in your defect report in order to help resolve this failure.

Given the following items of information:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of the items would be MOST useful to include in the defect report?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1,2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

Question 59

Consider the following code

int premium=2500;

if

{

premium = premium +1500:

}

Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number as boundary followed by expected result.

Options:

A.

30. 1500

31, 2500

B.

29,1500

30. 2500

C.

29. 2500

30, 1500

D.

29.4000

30. 2500

Question 60

Which of the following test execution outcomes are likely to increase the overall quality of the software:

I) A test case passes

II) A test case fails, defect gets logged which subsequently gets fixed

III) Some tests are deferred because test environment is not available

IV) A bug is found but there is no corresponding test case

Options:

A.

I, II and III

B.

I and IV

C.

I and II

D.

I, II and IV

Question 61

Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

Options:

A.

When a new test automation tool is launched

B.

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

C.

When it is easy to automate

D.

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

Question 62

An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect during Performance testing?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis tool.

B.

Test Execution tool.

C.

Configuration management tool.

D.

Coverage measurement tool.

Question 63

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool Which of the following is the best option?

Options:

A.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

B.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

C.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

D.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

Question 64

A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Options:

A.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

B.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

C.

The "dead" code has not been covered.

D.

Every executable statement is covered

Question 65

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

  • Component (unit) testing
  • 2 Integration testing
  • 3. System testing
  • 4 Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with

B.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

C.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on which test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

D.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality

Question 66

What is a peer review?

Options:

A.

An informal review without moderator

B.

A review done by developers and testers together

C.

A review done by developers only

D.

A review done by colleagues at the same organizational level

Question 67

For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively?

Options:

A.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 4

B.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 3

C.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 2

D.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 2

Question 68

Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?

Options:

A.

Test cases are derived based on non-functional requirements such as usability

B.

Test cases are designed to cover various user behaviors, including basic, exceptional or alternative and error behaviors associated with human users or systems

C.

Test cases are created using white-box test techniques to execute scenarios of use cases

D.

Test cases are derived based on pair testing between a user and a tester to find defects

Question 69

Consider the following excerpt from a test report 'We tested the module AX45T and we got only 1 failure. To recreate the failure, we used test file PR624_DR78_TCB0022 pkr, available under the PR624_DR78 repository in the CK01 server".

Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

Options:

A.

Provides developers with information to isolate the failure.

B.

Does not belong to an incident report

C.

Provides Project Managers with information on the project risks.

D.

Provides test managers with information to report test progress.

Question 70

Which of the following metrics are useful for monitoring the test progress?

Options:

A.

The number of features implemented in the code

B.

The number of changes done to the product's requirements

C.

Percentage of work done on the user's manuals

D.

Percentage of work done in test environment preparation

Question 71

A garden irrigation system allows the user to specify 2 inputs:

1. Frequency - The number of times the system should be automatically switched on per day; minimum once per day, maximum 5 times

2. Duration - The duration of operation, in whole minutes, each time it is switched on; ranging from 1 to 60

Applying 2-value boundary value analysis which of the following options has the correct test set of valid and invalid boundary values?

Options:

A.

Frequency 1, 5; Duration 1, 60

B.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 59 seconds, 1 minute, 60 minutes, 60 minutes 1 second

C.

Frequency 0, 1, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

D.

Frequency 0, 1, 2, 5, 6; Duration 0, 1, 30, 60, 61

Question 72

A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.

The user noticed that the result given is 6.

This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Mistake

C.

Fault

D.

Error

Question 73

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

C.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

Question 74

What is the order in which the specifications for test cases, test conditions and test procedures are developed as a part of the test development process?

Options:

A.

Test Procedure --> Test Condition -> Test Case

B.

Test Condition --> Test Case --> Test Procedure

C.

Test Procedure -> Test Case -> Test Condition

D.

Test Condition --> Test Procedure --> Test Case

Question 75

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

Options:

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

Question 76

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

Question 77

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

Question 78

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

Question 79

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

Question 80

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

Question 81

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

Question 82

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

Question 83

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

Question 84

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 85

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

Question 86

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

Question 88

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

Question 89

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

Question 90

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

Question 91

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

Question 92

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

Question 93

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

Question 94

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

Question 95

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

Question 96

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Question 97

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

Question 98

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

Question 99

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

Question 100

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

Question 101

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

Question 102

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

Question 103

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

Question 104

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 105

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

Question 106

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

Question 107

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

Question 108

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

Question 109

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures