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IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is an example of a tangible and assessable representation of risk?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk policy

B.

Risk treatment plan

C.

Risk scenario

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Question 2

An l&T-related risk assessment enables individuals responsible for risk governance to:

Options:

A.

define remediation plans for identified risk factors.

B.

assign proper risk ownership.

C.

identify potential high-risk areas.

Question 3

To address concerns of increased online skimming attacks, an enterprise is training the software development team on secure software development practices. This is an example of which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk mitigation

Question 4

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

To determine the best course of action based on the threat and potential impact

B.

To improve the knowledge of deficient control conditions within IT systems

C.

To reduce the amount of effort to identify and catalog new vulnerabilities

Question 5

An enterprise recently implemented multi-factor authentication. During the most recent risk assessment, it was determined that cybersecurity risk is within the organization's risk appetite threshold. What is the MOST appropriate action for the organization to take regarding the remaining cybersecurity residual risk?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Mitigate

C.

Transfer

Question 6

What is the PRIMARY benefit of using generic technology terms in IT risk assessment reports to management?

Options:

A.

Simplicity in translating risk reports into other languages

B.

Clarity on the proper interpretation of reported risk

C.

Ease of promoting risk awareness with key stakeholders

Question 7

For risk reporting to adequately reflect current risk management capabilities, the risk report should be based on the enterprise:

Options:

A.

risk management framework.

B.

risk profile.

C.

risk appetite.

Question 8

Risk maps can help to develop common profiles in order to identify which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk that has clearly identified and assigned ownership

B.

Risk remediation activities that have sufficient budget

C.

Risk response activities that can be made more efficient

Question 9

The MOST important reason for developing and monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide:

Options:

A.

measurable metrics for acceptable risk levels.

B.

information about control compliance.

C.

an early warning of possible risk materialization.

Question 10

An enterprise is currently experiencing an unacceptable 8% processing error rate and desires to manage risk by establishing a policy that error rates cannot exceed 5%. In addition, management wants to be alerted when error rates meet or exceed 4%. The enterprise should set a key performance indicator (KPI) metric at which of the following levels?

Options:

A.

5%

B.

4%

C.

8%

Question 11

Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?

Options:

A.

Complex enterprise architecture

B.

Improperly configured network devices

C.

Incomplete cybersecurity training records

Question 12

Which of the following is a KEY contributing component for determining risk rankings to direct risk response?

Options:

A.

Cost of mitigating controls

B.

Severity of a vulnerability

C.

Maturity of risk management processes

Question 13

Which of the following would be considered a cyber-risk?

Options:

A.

A system that does not meet the needs of users

B.

A change in security technology

C.

Unauthorized use of information

Question 14

Publishing l&T risk-related policies and procedures BEST enables an enterprise to:

Options:

A.

set the overall expectations for risk management.

B.

hold management accountable for risk loss events.

C.

ensure regulatory compliance and adherence to risk standards.

Question 15

The PRIMARY reason for the implementation of additional security controls is to:

Options:

A.

avoid the risk of regulatory noncompliance.

B.

adhere to local data protection laws.

C.

manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels.

Question 16

Which of the following is a benefit of using a top-down approach when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Focus at the enterprise level makes it easier to achieve management support.

B.

The development process is simplified because it includes only I&T-related events.

C.

Identification and assignment of risk ownership for mitigation plans can be done more quickly.

Question 17

Which of the following provides the MOST important input for analyzing I&T-related risk?

Options:

A.

Information about market trends and technology evolution

B.

Information about past incidents, frequency, and loss to the organization

C.

Information about threats and vulnerabilities

Question 18

An enterprise has moved its data center from a flood-prone area where it had experienced significant service disruptions to one that is not a flood zone. Which risk response strategy has the organization selected?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk avoidance

Question 19

Which of the following risk analysis methods gathers different types of potential risk ideas to be validated and ranked by an individual or small groups during interviews?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming model

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Monte Cado analysis

Question 20

Which of the following MUST be consistent with the defined criteria when establishing the risk management context as it relates to calculation of risk?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Formulas and methods for combining impact and likelihood

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key performance indicators (KPIs)

Question 21

Of the following, which stakeholder group is MOST often responsible for risk governance?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Business units

Question 22

Which of the following is MOST important when defining an organization's risk scope?

Options:

A.

Understanding the impacts of the risk environment to the organization

B.

Developing a top-down approach to risk management

C.

Developing requirements for risk reporting to executive management

Question 23

Which of the following statements on an organization's cybersecurity profile is BEST suited for presentation to management?

Options:

A.

The probability of a cyber attack varies between unlikely and very likely.

B.

Risk management believes the likelihood of a cyber attack is not imminent.

C.

Security measures are configured to minimize the risk of a cyber attack.

Question 24

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure when preparing a risk report?

Options:

A.

The risk report should be published for transparency and enterprise risk awareness.

B.

The risk report should be uniform for all stakeholders to ensure consistency.

C.

The risk report should be customized to stakeholder expectations.

Question 25

A business continuity plan (BCP) is:

Options:

A.

a methodical plan detailing the steps of incident response activities.

B.

a document of controls that reduce the risk of losing critical processes.

C.

a risk-related document that focuses on business impact assessments (BIAs).

Question 26

Which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of a risk scoping activity?

Options:

A.

Identification of major risk factors to be benchmarked against industry competitors

B.

Identification of potential high-impact risk areas throughout the enterprise

C.

Identification of risk scenarios related to emerging technologies

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability analysis

B.

Controls gap analysis

C.

Penetration testing

Question 28

The use of risk scenarios to guide senior management through a rapidly changing market environment is considered a key risk management

Options:

A.

benefit.

B.

incentive.

C.

capability.

Question 29

Which of the following is the objective of a frequency analysis?

Options:

A.

To determine how often risk mitigation strategies should be evaluated and updated within a specific timeframe

B.

To determine how many risk scenarios will impact business objectives over a given period of time

C.

To determine how often a particular risk scenario might be expected to occur during a specified period of time

Question 30

Which of the following is MOST likely to promote ethical and open communication of risk management activities at the executive level?

Options:

A.

Recommending risk tolerance levels to the business

B.

Expressing risk results in financial terms

C.

Increasing the frequency of risk status reports

Question 31

Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize potential attack vectors on the enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Implement network log monitoring.

B.

Disable any unneeded ports.

C.

Provide annual cybersecurity awareness training.

Question 32

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of effective asset valuation?

Options:

A.

It protects the enterprise from paying more for protection than the net worth of the asset.

B.

It assures that asset valuation is consistently applied to all assets across the enterprise.

C.

It ensures assets are linked to processes and classified based on business value.

Question 33

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason that a list of control deficiencies identified in a recent security assessment would be excluded from an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The deficiencies have no business relevance.

B.

The deficiencies are actual misconfigurations.

C.

The deficiencies have already been resolved.

Question 34

Which of the following includes potential risk events and the associated impact?

Options:

A.

Risk scenario

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk profile