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Total 327 questions

Certified Government Auditing Professional Questions and Answers

Question 1

Consulting services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client. The nature and scope of the consulting engagement are subject to agreement with the engagement client. All of the following are the parties generally involved in consulting services EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The person or group using the assessment — the user.

B.

the person or group offering the advice — the internal auditor

C.

The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.

D.

the person or group seeking and receiving the advice — the engagement client

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Question 2

The steps in developing an activity-based costing system are as follows EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Identify which areas (e.g., programs or services) will be subjected to activity based costingand determine how the results of activity-based costing will be used.

B.

control the costs

C.

Define the activities in the organization that produce the program or service being subjected to activity-based costing.

D.

Link the cost of resources to specific activities through the use of resource drivers.

Question 3

Who control the operation of the computer system and for the efficient use of computer resources which is responsible?

Options:

A.

The smart-and-gets-things-done programmer

B.

System programmers

C.

software programmer

D.

the smart programmer

Question 4

Embedded controls over purchase cards can include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Types of transactions (prohibiting cash advances, personal items, etc.).

B.

Transaction limits per day/per month.

C.

Monthly cardholder dollar limit.

D.

Minimum dollars per transaction.

Question 5

_________ is a contract that provides for payment of allowable incurred costs to the extent prescribed in the contract. Where as ___________ a cost-reimbursement contract in which the contractor receives no fee and is reimbursed only for an agreed-upon portion of its allowable costs:

Options:

A.

Cost sharing, Cost-plus-incentive-fee

B.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee is, Cost-plus-incentive-fee

C.

Cost-reimbursement, Cost sharing

D.

Cost-plus-incentive-fee, Cost sharing

Question 6

All of the following are major steps in the strategic planning process EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

To develop the general outline.

B.

Develop one or more general statements that address what the entity aims to achieve.

C.

Develop specific plans, a method for achieving those plans, and resource allocations. The plans should contain measurable objectives and implementation or achievement time frames.

D.

Communicate the plan to affected staff. Consider sharing early drafts of the plan with staff to obtain their input and to ensure their support of the plan.

Question 7

The basic elements of effective decision-making are also used as standard guidelines for information technology project management practices. All of the following are the basic steps in decision-making EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Identify possible solutions that will address the problem. Consider how each possible solution will influence affected groups.

B.

Define the problem.

C.

Identify the interests and values of individuals and groups affected by the problem.

D.

Monitor the plan and its effectiveness. Strategic plans are dynamic tools, not static documents. Management should constantly monitor the effect of changes in the entity’s external environment and modify the strategic initiatives as necessary.

Question 8

The primary purpose of budgeting is to allocate resources among government activities. all of the includes the basic framework for budgeting EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control.

B.

Accountability.

C.

Evaluation

D.

planning

Question 9

The goal of the comprehensive approach is to identify potential significant control weaknesses for further review. All of the following are the general steps in the process EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Document and evaluate work processes and controls.

B.

Acceptance of audit findings and corrective action taken.

C.

Select a sample of transactions and determine if processes and controls are functioning as intended.

D.

Determine or estimate the effect of control weakness of program goals and objectives.

Question 10

Permanent Fund is the Endowment-like arrangements available to support the operations or programs of the government (e.g., cemetery perpetual care funds).where as ________are used when a government wants to recoup all or a portion of the cost of providing a service (i.e., utility charges, mass transit fees).

Options:

A.

permanent fund, enterprise fund

B.

program budgeting, Zero-based budgeting

C.

General Funds, Special Revenue Funds

D.

Debt Service Fund, Capital Projects Fund

Question 11

Although not a generally accepted practice by most audit organizations, some may not comply with audit standards and call the final product reviews or studies. The entire following are some specific examples where standards may not be used EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

An “assignment” may have an extremely short deadline, making it virtually impossible to comply with all appropriate audit standards.

B.

The organization doesn’t follow the audit standards.

C.

Assignments that are strictly tied to compliance with contract terms, regulations, or grant requirements.

D.

The requesting body (legislature, for example) may not want standards to be applied to the assignment.

Question 12

Most governments have some form of a centralized budgeting agency. All of the following are areas addressed by budget offices EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Developing a budget document that incorporates all agency requests into a government wide request or plan.

B.

Not developing a budget document that incorporates all agency requests into a government wide request or plan.

C.

Assessing the national economy and the impact it will have on finances.

D.

Assessing financial performance — reviewing and analyzing the revenues, expenditures, and cash balances at various times throughout the year.

Question 13

The scope of the audit defines the boundaries of the audit by addressing such items as the audit period or number of locations to be reviewed. Some important considerations when defining the scope of an audit include all of the following given below EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Program or management objectives (e.g., the audit may be limited to a specific program within an organization).

B.

Determine how audit findings should be formulated.

C.

Risks identified (inherent and control risks), also called level of risks and extent of vulnerability to the risk/strength of control activities.

D.

Type and extent of problems found in prior years’ audit reports and Preliminary judgment about materiality levels.

Question 14

The__________ is where the audit determines whether process controls exist and are sufficient to provide reasonable assurance that the desired performance will be achieved. Where as The ____________ is where the audit includes methodology for measuring performance either because the audited entity is not measuring its own performance or because its performance measurement efforts are or may be incomplete or unreliable.

Options:

A.

Measurement-based approach, process-based approach

B.

Process-based approach, measurement-based approach

C.

Planning-based approach, measurement-based approach

D.

Measurement-based approach, control-based approach

Question 15

_______ covers strategy and tactics and concerns the identification of the way information technology can best contribute to the achievement of objectives. Where as __________ covers the identification, development or acquisition, and integration of IT solutions into the business process.

Options:

A.

Acquisition and Implementation (AI), Planning and Organization (PO)

B.

Planning and Organization (PO), Acquisition and Implementation (AI)

C.

Delivery and Support (DS), Monitoring (MN)

D.

Monitoring (MN), Delivery and Support (DS)

Question 16

The characteristics of ____________ will vary based on the _____ of the audit unit and the nature of its work. Where as The frequency of required quality assurance reviews varies based on the _____ of standards followed.

Options:

A.

Internal quality control systems, length, type

B.

External quality control systems, size, type

C.

External quality control systems, quality, type

D.

Internal quality control systems, size, type

Question 17

COSO was a private-sector initiative started in the 1980s to address the problem of fraudulent financial reporting. Problems continued to persist in the 1980s and the private sector was wary of additional government intervention, so all of the following five organizations banded together to form COSO please choose the correct option:

Options:

A.

American Institute of Certified Public Accountants

B.

Financial Executives Institute and American Accounting Association

C.

Institute of Management Accountants and the Institute of Internal Auditors

D.

All of the above

Question 18

Methods of analyzing data in summative evaluations include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Content analysis

B.

Experiments

C.

Interviews.

D.

Contact summary form

Question 19

Grants are used by governments to operate programs and provide services. Common types of grant classifications include the following given below please choose the correct option:

Options:

A.

Formula grants — legally mandated funding levels and restrictions on eligible grantees, with little or no discretion being exercised by the grantor.

B.

Project grants — Similar to contracts because grantors agree to pay the grantee for services, performance, or a specific project.

C.

Construction grants — Awarded only for construction of permanent facilities.

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

Question 20

Auditing plays an important role in ensuring accountability. Through its various forms (internal and external), auditing provides a method of control to help ensure that objectives are realized in an appropriate manner. Some broad areas covered by audits include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The accuracy and completeness of records.

B.

Compliance with laws, regulations, contract terms, policies, and procedures.

C.

complexity of objectives.

D.

Economy and efficiency of operations.

Question 21

The integrity violations policy should be developed based on input from the chief executive officer and the heads of the following departments: fiscal, information processing, legal, and security. Integrity violations policies should do all of the following given below please choose the correct option:

Options:

A.

State management’s position against integrity violations — the organization should make it clear that integrity violations will not be tolerated and those perpetrators will be prosecuted.

B.

Establish consistent penalties — the policy should specify what types of action will result in reprimand, termination, or other consequences.

C.

A & B only.

D.

All of the above.

Question 22

German sociologist Max Weber coined the term bureaucracy. All of the following are positive functions bureaucracies have EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

A division of labor that allows each employee to have specific functions and duties.

B.

A framework of rules that give employees direction about what they are supposed to do.

C.

Appointments to office are based on technical qualifications, not political contacts.

D.

Levels of authority that enables decisions to be made.

Question 23

All of the following are Methods of measuring performance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Manual tracking and summarizing of activity.

B.

Periodic sampling, such as through citizen surveys, random time studies, or random sampling of agency data.

C.

Calculations based on current trends.

D.

Routine collection of data either through entry or upload into automated systems.

Question 24

All of the Following are the major goals of COSO EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Establish a common definition of internal control.

B.

Provide a standard against which organizations can assess their control systems.

C.

Create and track Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Results-Oriented and Time Sensitive goals.

D.

Provide a straight-forward line-of-sight view of cascaded organizational goals for both managers and employees.

Question 25

All of the Following are the major categories of performance measures EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Input measures

B.

Process measures

C.

Output measures

D.

control measures

Question 26

_________assess the overall effect of the program and are typically conducted on a periodic or as needed basis, in contrast to performance measurement, which is performed on an ongoing basis.

Options:

A.

performance evaluation

B.

Program evaluations

C.

evaluate performance

D.

evaluate employees

Question 27

The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards are a model for government audit standards, established and endorsed by the INTOSAI organization, but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be used?

Options:

A.

Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI)

B.

International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)

C.

International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution (SAI)

D.

International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit Institution (SAI)

Question 28

General Funds are The chief operating fund for a government is called the general fund.where as Special Revenue Funds are The funds that are used when the revenue sources are earmarked for a specific purpose (special tax or grant requirement);

Options:

A.

Special Revenue Funds, General Funds

B.

program budgeting, Zero-based budgeting

C.

General Funds, Special Revenue Funds

D.

integrated budget, Capital budgeting

Question 29

The AICPA professional standards identify all of the following internal control components EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control environment and Risk assessment

B.

assessing diversification risk

C.

Control activities and Monitoring1

D.

Information and communication

Question 30

The audit function within government provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Prompt implementation of audit recommendations.

B.

The audit function helps keep governments accountable to the public by measuring adherence to established laws, regulations, and controls, and the effectiveness, economy, and efficiency of operations.

C.

The audit function provides objective assurance to oversight bodies about the reliability and credibility of financial and performance reports produced by management.

D.

Input from audits can help employees improve their overall job performance and adherence to establish controls.

Question 31

Section _________ will detail some specific audit planning steps that are often utilized to ensure that the appropriate legal and audit standards are applied in ___________:

Options:

A.

Audit proposals, Audit engagements

B.

Audit engagements, II.C.2 (Planning)

C.

II.C.2 (Planning), Audit engagements

D.

Audit engagements, Audit proposals

Question 32

All of The following are the guidelines that apply to the construction of a frequency distribution EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Divide classes to ensure that the smallest and largest values in the array are shown.

B.

Assign each item in the array to only one class.

C.

make graph

D.

Keep the size of each interval the same.

Question 33

_____________involves interviews, observations, and inspections appropriate to the audit objectives. Auditors often design tests of specific management controls based on information gained in previous audits:

Options:

A.

Market control management

B.

Bureaucratic control management

C.

Clan control

D.

Testing management controls

Question 34

All of the Following are the additional terms that, although not mutually exclusive, help define budget authority EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

temporary authority

B.

Definite appropriation authority

C.

Indefinite appropriation authority

D.

Current authority

Question 35

The major considerations in project management can be modified to fit specific projects, but generally include the following:

Options:

A.

Clarify understanding about the audit mandate

B.

Develop budgets and Assign staff to the project

C.

Develop and assign specific tasks

D.

All of the above.

Question 36

What type of reviews are designed to determine whether the audit unit’s internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed or not?

Options:

A.

Formal reviews

B.

Quality assurance reviews

C.

Over-the-shoulder reviews

D.

E-mail pass-around reviews

Question 37

The statistical section contains provides trend data and other nonfinancial information to assist in assessing a government’s financial condition. All of the following are the components of this section EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

General governmental expenditures and revenues for the past 10 years.

B.

Special assessments and collections for the past 10 years.

C.

Property tax levies and assessed value information for the past100 years.

D.

Revenue bond coverage for the past 10 years.

Question 38

Freedom of information legislation has set the tone for public officials that all decisions and actions are subject to review. ________and ________require that all official meetings are publicized and the general public is invited so that individuals interested in public affairs might attend.

Options:

A.

Regulatory laws and open meetings acts

B.

Sunshine laws and open meetings acts

C.

Property laws and open meetings acts

D.

Sunshine laws and closed meetings acts

Question 39

____________is the Risk in any activity, regardless of the existence or effectiveness of controls. Where as ___________is the extent of uncertainty remaining after the mitigating effects of the control system are in place. The extent to which an organization has implemented controls to minimize the actual occurrence of the risk determines the vulnerability to the risk actually occurring.

Options:

A.

Potential risk, quality risk

B.

Inherent risk, control risk

C.

Control risk, quality risk

D.

Internal risk, control risk

Question 40

_______ quantify the amount of resources used or planned for a specific service or program. Where as ________report quantities of products or services delivered by a program or agency.

Options:

A.

Output measures Input measures

B.

Input measures Output measures

C.

Output measures control measures

D.

quality measures Output measures

Question 41

The IIA has developed the Professional Practices Framework (PPF). In general, a framework provides a structural blueprint of how a body of knowledge and guidance fits together. As a coherent system, it facilitates all of the following to a discipline or profession EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Communication skills

B.

Application of concepts

C.

Consistent development

D.

Interpretation and methodologies

Question 42

All of the following are the general steps to follow when testing a hypothesis EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

State the null and alternative hypotheses.

B.

Establish the criterion for rejecting or accepting the null hypothesis.

C.

Analyze the data. Data analysis involves collecting sampled items, estimating the parameter, and calculating the value of the sample mean.

D.

Accept the null hypothesis only.

Question 43

________ supports a finding with the greatest degree of certainty. This type of evidence provides direct proof of a fact without requiring additional inference or presumption. ________ provides less certainty than direct evidence. This type of evidence generally requires the use of additional evidence to develop and support conclusions.

Options:

A.

Corroborative evidence, Primary or direct evidence

B.

Primary or direct evidence, Secondary evidence

C.

Secondary evidence, Primary or direct evidence

D.

Corroborative evidence, Primary or direct evidence

Question 44

Auditors and evaluators develop ________ to obtain information from customers or other stakeholders that is not readily available in the organization’s data sources. Where as ______ allow auditors to obtain testimonial evidence regarding a customer’s operations, activities, concerns, and initiatives.

Options:

A.

observation, interviews

B.

Interviews, questionnaires

C.

questionnaires, Interviews

D.

surveys, Interviews

Question 45

Some forms or documents that may assist in the contracting process are given below please choose the correct option:

Options:

A.

Procurement request or authorization — prepared by internal managers.

B.

Proposal — submitted by interested, prospective contractors.

C.

Contract document — executed only by authorized internal procurement personnel.

D.

A & B only.

E.

All of the above.

Question 46

Following are the field standards that are applicable to all types of audits EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The controller, in determining the extent and scope of the audit, should study and evaluate the reliability of internal control.

B.

Competent, relevant, and reasonable evidence should be obtained to support the auditor’s judgment and conclusions regarding the organization, program, activity, or function under audit.

C.

The auditor should plan the audit in a manner which ensures that an audit of high quality is carried out in an economic, efficient, and effective way and in a timely manner.

D.

The work of the audit staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit; and documented work should be reviewed by a senior member of the audit staff.

Question 47

________is a concept relating to the accumulation of the audit evidence necessary for the auditor to conclude that there are no material misstatements in the financial statements taken as a whole. While the ________ is responsible for forming and expressing an opinion on the financial statements, the responsibility for preparing and presenting the financial statements is that of the management of the entity.

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance, auditor

B.

Audit policy, controller

C.

Reasonable assurance, trainer

D.

Audit record, auditor

Question 48

The final investigative report serves all of the following major purposes please choose the correct option:

Options:

A.

Management overview or a brief summary of the case and details of the people involved and recommended actions.

B.

To provide a format for recording the essential details of the integrity violation.

C.

All of the above.

D.

To recommend improved management and security policies.

Question 49

_______is the form used for most legislation, whether permanent or temporary, general or special, public or private. Bills are presented to the president for action when approved in identical form by both the House of Representatives and the Senate. Where ______ may originate either in the House of Representatives or in the Senate. There is little practical difference between a bill and a joint resolution.

Options:

A.

Bill, joint resolution

B.

joint resolution, bill

C.

Concurrent resolutions, Simple resolutions

D.

Simple resolutions, joint resolution

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Total 327 questions