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Total 511 questions

Certified Financial Services Auditor Questions and Answers

Question 1

Known limitations of VaR methodology include the fact that changes in market may not tend to normal distribution (specifically, that very large movements are more likely than predicated by the normal distribution assumption); BECAUSE:

Options:

A.

Correlation between market movement can vary (especially during periods of stress in themarket)

B.

The changes in present values are not perfectly linearly related to changes market rates.

C.

The use of one day horizon does not fully capture the market risk of positions that cannot be liquidated in one day.

D.

All of these

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Question 2

The federal open market committee (FOMC) board sets reserve requirements and shares the responsibility with the reserve banks for:

Options:

A.

Interest rate policy

B.

Premium policy

C.

Discount rate policy

D.

All of these

Question 3

Universal life policies are a form of permanent life insurance that has flexible premiums, flexible face amounts, and separate pricing for the three major pricing categories. Which of the following is/are out of those categories?

Options:

A.

Mortality charges based on the insurer’s risk classification

B.

Internet rate paid on the cash value

C.

Expenses associated with administering the policy

D.

All of these

Question 4

The risks associated with operating objectives include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Customer requirements

B.

Technology

C.

Competitor

D.

Financial institute

Question 5

An area of FOMC board responsibilities is the development and administration of regulation that implement major federal laws governing consumer credit, such as:

Options:

A.

Truth bending Act and the equal credit opportunity Act

B.

Home Mortgage disclosure Act and truth savings ACT

C.

Sunshine Act

D.

Only A & b

Question 6

“A negotiated offering in which a new issue of municipal securities is sold on an agency basis by a placement agent directly to institutional or private investors rather than through an offering to the general investing public” is referred as:

Options:

A.

Public offering

B.

Private placement

C.

over the counter trade

D.

None of these

Question 7

Purchasers of universal life policies specify the policy’s face amount and whether the death benefit will be level or vary as the policy’s cash value changes. Under level death benefit policies the death benefit payable:

Options:

A.

Equals the policy’s face amount

B.

More than the policy’s face amount

C.

Less than the policy’s face amount

D.

Is policy’s face value plus any accumulated cash value

Question 8

Basel II aims to improve the security and long-term viability of the financial system by focusing on bank’s ____________

Options:

A.

Internal control System

B.

Supervisory discipline

C.

Marketing discipline

D.

None of these

Question 9

_____________ insures two lives under one policy. Death benefits are paid to the surviving insured. The surviving insured usually has the option of purchasing an individual whole life policy of the same face amount without providing evidence of insurability.

Options:

A.

Joint whole life policies

B.

First-to-die policies

C.

Modified premium whole life policies

D.

A & B are one and the same category

Question 10

Insurance products yield _________ compared to regular investment option and this is besides the added incentives (read bonuses) offered by insurers.

Options:

A.

More

B.

Less

C.

Almost the same

D.

It depends

Question 11

Which one of the following is common misinterpretation during the calculation of VaR

Options:

A.

The VaR calculation is based on an assumption that the portfolio is held constant over the

time interval in practice are actively managed so that as adverse condition develop actions will be taken to mitigate losses As a result the true probability of a lose as large as that predicted may be much less then Fore cast

B.

The VaR Forecast is based on what has happened in the past If the future is not like the past the realized losses may be the lager (or smaller then predicted)

C.

There is a tendency to interpret VaR as the largest loss that has on X percent probability of being exceeded. The largest that loss that may occur will not be too much larger than the aR, while for other portfolios (particularly those including highly levered derivatives), it may be many times greater than the VaR.

D.

All of the above.

Question 12

It is a characteristic of insurance policy according to which the insured decides whether or not to pay the premium to be covered by the policy. If the insured pays the premium, the insurance coma pay is obliged to make payments as stated in the policy. What is it?

Options:

A.

Unilateral

B.

Bilateral

C.

Incontestable

D.

Adhesion

Question 13

When a bank charges off a loan as a loss, it reduces an account called the”_____________”

Options:

A.

Lease payable

B.

Lease Expense

C.

Allowance of loans and lease losses

D.

Prepaid loans and lease

Question 14

IF a securitization transaction meets FAS 125 sale or servicing criteria, the seller must recognize any gain or loss on the sale of the pool immediately and carry any retained interests in the assets sold ( including servicing rights/obligation and interest-only strips) at ____________.

Options:

A.

Principal value

B.

Fair value

C.

Premium Amount

D.

Both A&C

Question 15

Which of the following should be the next step after the structuring process in order to complete the securitization process?

Options:

A.

Credit management

B.

Credit operations

C.

Credit Enhancement

D.

Credit deployment

Question 16

Insurance policies are good for insurance needs, however, as a main investment vehicles, they have considerable downsides.

Options:

A.

A majority of a premium payments is “part of commission” a small percent of your moneygoes towards the investment avenue.

B.

The guaranteed cash value, or accumulation value of your investment is normally such a low percentage, typically one to three percent.

C.

You would be much better off using a traditional investment vehicle than an insurance policy as an investment

D.

Only A & B

Question 17

Risks inherent in the management process are known as:

Options:

A.

Residual risks

B.

Long-term risks

C.

Control risks

D.

Strategic risks

Question 18

Compliance testing is designed primarily to:

Options:

A.

Hold detection risk to an acceptable level

B.

Determine whether policies and procedures have been followed

C.

Determine that account balances exit, are accurate, and are properly classified

D.

Provide evidence about monetary misstatements

Question 19

Watch lists of loans that are in danger of becoming delinquent generally contain information on such as:

Options:

A.

Customers name and account information

B.

Loan balance outstanding

C.

Available collateral and its estimated value

D.

All of these

Question 20

An organization might decide that the risk of fire is high so it will pay a high premium on its fire insurance policy to transfer the risk as much as possible. However, the organization will still have to pay deductible amount on the policy if a fire occurs. This scenario depicts:

Options:

A.

Assessment of the likelihood that a given risk will occur

B.

Control the risk

C.

Accept the risk

D.

Transfer the risk

Question 21

“Ongoing monitoring activities are conducted to periodically reassess risk and the effectiveness of control risk,” is an objective of:

Options:

A.

Risk Identification

B.

Risk Measurement

C.

Risk Management Process

D.

Risk Prioritization

Question 22

The responsibility for preparing and presenting the audited financial statements is that of:

Options:

A.

Internal auditor

B.

Engagement client/ Management of the entity

C.

Process owner

D.

Auditing Agency

Question 23

During the posting process of ledger records on deposit account banks may reject some transactions because:

Options:

A.

They lack proper endorsements

B.

They are subject to stop payments

C.

They would create an over draft

D.

All of these

Question 24

Which one of the following activities is not related to the trust committee activities that should be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Whether regular meetings are held and documented by meeting minutes

B.

Whether the trust committee contains at least one member who is not a bank officer

C.

Whether there is adequate oversight of the trust committee’s activities by board of directors

D.

None of these

Question 25

Some wills specify that more than one responsible party share the trustee’s responsibilities of an estate .The condition depicts relation with which one of the following trust services:

Options:

A.

Guardians of estates

B.

Co-fiduciary

C.

Estate settlement

D.

Trusts

Question 26

Data gathering and evaluation during field work includes:

Options:

A.

Gaining and understanding of the activity, system, or process under review

B.

Observing conditions and operations

C.

Interviewing people and examining assets and accounting, and other operational business, and other operational records.

D.

All of these

Question 27

If principal is paid on a loan after it has been placed on non-accrual status, the bank must determine whether it should record the payment as a reduction of:

Options:

A.

The loan principal amount

B.

Income interest

C.

Both of these

D.

Any one of these

Question 28

Which one of the following audit objectives and steps should not be considered when performing an audit of deposit account?

Options:

A.

Determine whether dormant accounts are closed in a timely manner and in accordance with policies

B.

Determine whether there are adequate controls to prevent unauthorized access and change to customer accounts

C.

Determine whether applicable fees and penalties are properly assessed and posted

D.

None of these

Question 29

Demand deposit account allows customers to transfer money through the use of:

Options:

A.

Checks

B.

ATMs and EFTs

C.

Point of sale (POS) terminals

D.

All of these

Question 30

Following elements should be documented in the audit scope EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Time period to be covered by audit tests

B.

Available data:

No. of records

Locations

Need to create data

Form

Reliability

C.

Prioritizing risks

D.

Both A and B

Question 31

The scope of an audit defines the boundaries of the audit by addressing such items as the audit period or number of locations to be reviewed.. Some important considerations when defining the scope of an audit include:

Options:

A.

Needs of potential users of the audit report

B Preliminary judgment about materiality levels

B.

Both A and B

C.

None of the above

Question 32

Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:

Options:

A.

Objectivity

B.

Awareness

C.

Integrity

D.

Competence

Question 33

Which one of the annuities, mentioned below, is not regulated by the SEC:

Options:

A.

Fixed annuities

B.

Variable annuities

C.

Mixed annuities

D.

Expired annuities

Question 34

Some organizations have information protection policies that place the burden of information protection on managers in individual organizational units. An information protection policy may include:

Options:

A.

Statements that define information as an asset that must be protected to different degrees based on its sensitivity, criticality, and value, regardless of the media on which it is stored, the manual or automated systems that process it, or the methods by which it is distributed

B.

Statements outlining the responsibilities of information owners, custodians and users

C.

Definitions of the previously audited data and its classifications

D.

Both A & B

Question 35

Due from bank balances are used to:

Options:

A.

Ensure liquid reserves

B.

Protect stored data

C.

Restrict physical access to cardholder

D.

Facilitate the transfer of funds and to use as compensation for correspondent bankingservices

Question 36

___________ are investment securities that do not fall under one of the other types of securities. Examples of these are Type III securities including corporate bonds and municipal bonds.

Options:

A.

Type II Securities

B.

Type III Securities

C.

Type I Securities

D.

Type IV Securities

Question 37

Municipal bonds are issued by state and local governments, U.S. territories, and non-federal public agencies such as school districts, cities, and airport authorities. Municipal debt is considered the second safest form of debt security after U.S. government obligations. Some types of municipal bonds include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

General obligation bonds

B.

Revenue bonds

C.

Single barreled bonds

D.

Moral obligation bonds

Question 38

Unsecured bonds are not backed by assets and provide no claim on assets for bondholders These include:

Options:

A.

Debenture

B.

Subordinated debenture

C.

Collateral trust bonds

D.

Trust indenture

Question 39

Non-deposit investment product includes:

Options:

A.

Fixed annuities

B.

Variable annuities

C.

Mixed annuities

D.

Both A&B

Question 40

Elements of information and process integrity are that it should be authorized, accurate, complete, timely, recorded processed, and reported in the proper time. Each of the elements in the above has a relationship to the:

Options:

A.

Selection of data

B.

Collection of data

C.

Classification of data

D.

All of these

Question 41

Most municipal and corporate bonds are rated by an independent rating firm such as Standard & Poor’s (S&P) or Moody’s. These ratings provide investors with information regarding the risk of default on the bond issue. The higher rated bonds are considered _________.

Options:

A.

Investment grade bonds

B.

Speculative bonds

C.

Junk bonds

D.

Blue chip bonds

Question 42

When conducting an audit of securities investments, the following objectives and audit steps should be considered EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Determine whether policies, procedures, practices, and internal controls over security investments are adequate and being followed

B.

Determine whether transactions are properly authorized and recorded. Verify that dividend or interest income is accurately calculated and recorded in the general ledger

C.

Determine that the institution has an adequate process for reconciling subsidiary records to the general ledger on a regular basis

D.

Determine whether the institution adequately control and records the sold securities in balance sheet

Question 43

Most corporations have an annual meeting where stockholders have the opportunity to vote on important issues. These issues include:

Options:

A.

Election of the board of directors (the officers of the corporation)

B.

Changes to the corporate charter

C.

Reconciliation

D.

Takeovers

Question 44

Banks generally record securities transactions as of trade date. However, it is acceptable to record the transactions as of the _________ if the difference between the settlement date and trade date is not materially different.

Options:

A.

Market closing date

B.

Settlement date

C.

A day before the closing date

D.

None of these

Question 45

It is a contract that defines corporation and bondholders responsibilities and is designed to protect the right of the bondholders. A trustee (most often a commercial bank) is generally appointed to ensure that the obligations defined in the agreement are of trust indenture must e filled with SEC. What is it?

Options:

A.

Bond certificate

B.

Trust indenture

C.

Secured bonds

D.

Collateral trust

Question 46

Options are quoted daily in the newspapers. The listing provides the name of the underlying stock and its closing price that day, the strike price of the option, the closing prices(premiums) of the 3 call and 3 put contracts trading closest to expiration. Listings can be divided into categories. Which of the following is/are out of those categories?

Options:

A.

Option Class

B.

Option Series

C.

Option Statuses

D.

Option Lists

Question 47

The reliability (competence) of evidence gathered by auditors is a __________. The reliability of evidence is a key factor in the audit analysis. Relevance is also a key factor in determining the quality of evidence.

Options:

A.

Fixed term

B.

Variable

C.

Determinant

D.

Subjective philosophy

Question 48

Derivates can be effective low cost tools for managing expose experience losses due to:

Options:

A.

Interest rate change

B.

Master agreements

C.

Commodity price change

D.

All of these

Question 49

There are different classes of mutual funds. Classes that typically do not have a front-end sales load. Instead they may impose a contingent deferred sales load and a 12b-1 fee (along with other annual expenses) is called:

Options:

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class C

D.

Both B&C

Question 50

Which of the following is not an audit objective of a commodity department?

Options:

A.

All customer accounts are opened and maintained in accordance with the rules and regulations commodity futures trading commission (CFTC) and the various commodity Exchanges

B.

Adequate control exist to ensure the accuracy and propriety of information contained in regulatory reports, such as the commodity futures trading commission form 1-FR, and the focus report

C.

Verify the accuracy and reporting (inventory reports, fail reports, again reports and profit and loss reports.)

D.

None of these

Question 51

Which of the following is least expensive form of life coverage, at least initially?

Options:

A.

Variable life insurance

B.

Whole life insurance

C.

Term life insurance

D.

Permanent life insurance

Question 52

In which of the following ways would the writer of an uncovered call usually make a profit?

I. The call expires

II. The underlying stock splits

III. The underlying stock goes up in price

IV. The underlying Stock goes down in price

Options:

A.

III only

B.

I and IV only

C.

II and IV only

D.

I, II, and III only

Question 53

The administration of personal trust accounts is primarily controlled by all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Terms of Governing instrument

B.

A will

C.

Trust agreement

D.

Court order

Question 54

Cash surrender life insurance is referred to:

Options:

A.

Permanent life insurance

B.

Whole life insurance

C.

Both of these

D.

None of these

Question 55

The duties of a guardian in guardianship arrangements are similar to those of a trustee.

Specifically, the guardian is obligated to:

1) Protect and preserve the assets

2) Submit an inventory and appraisal to the court

3) Retain or divest assets

4) Use principal and income for the benefit of the ward

5) Submit an annual accounting to the court

Options:

A.

Only 1.3,4

B.

All of these

C.

Only 1, 2

D.

All except 3

Question 56

Major types of individual long-term disability policies are all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Non-cancelable policies

B.

Credit disability insurance

C.

Guaranteed renewable policies

D.

Conditional renewable policies

Question 57

The responsibility of setting an estate includes:

Options:

A.

Taking possession of the property included within thedecedent’sestate

B.

Valuing the estate’s property

C.

Paying any debts of thedecedent’s

D.

All of these

Question 58

Call provisions are often part of ______________, but usually not bonds issued by ______________.

Options:

A.

Zero coupon bond, Federal Government bonds

B.

Corporate bonds, Zero coupon bonds

C.

Corporate and municipal bonds, bonds issued by Federal Government

D.

None of these

Question 59

Occasionally, a company will issue additional shares of its stocks, called ____________, to raise additional capital.

Options:

A.

Secondary Offering

B.

IPO

C.

Private Placement

D.

Preferred Offering

Question 60

I- With reference to the granting of customer credit lines a thorough analysis of the customer’s overall financial position is performed prior to trading authorization.

II-confirmations of each transaction are sent to customers indicating the quantity, delivery month and the contract price to ensure the integrity of transactions.

III-Original margin deposits in cash or acceptable securities to guarantee performance of contracts are determined in accordance These all are adequate procedures and controls associated with:

Options:

A.

Commodity transaction

B.

Mutual funds audit

C.

Bond audit

D.

None of these

Question 61

One fund may invest on mostly established “blue chip” (Companies that pay regular dividends). Another fund may invest in newer technology companies that pay no dividends but that may have more potential for growth. These are the examples of:

Options:

A.

Mutual funds

B.

Index funds

C.

Stock funds

D.

Bond funds

Question 62

Money market funds bond funds (also called “fixed income” funds) , and stock funds (also called equity funds) are the categories of:

Options:

A.

Mutual funds

B.

Professionally managed portfolio

C.

Hedge funds

D.

None of these

Question 63

A UIT typically issues redeemable securities (or “units”), like a mutual fund, which means:

Options:

A.

That the UITs typically will make a one-time “public offering”

B.

A UIT does not activity trade its investment portfolio

C.

That the UIT will, buy back an investor’s request at their approximate net asset value

D.

All of these

Question 64

____________ swaps give companies extra flexibility to exploit their comparative advantage in their respective borrowing markets.

Options:

A.

Fixed-floating swaps

B.

Currency swaps

C.

Interest rate swaps

D.

None of these

Question 65

Some specific requirements of securities and exchange 1934 Act are:

Options:

A.

Registration Requirement

B.

Credit Regulation

C.

Manipulation and Deception

D.

All of these

Question 66

Correspondent banks, Credit party, Draw down, Execution date, Remitter, and Repetitive transfer are some terminologies related to:

Options:

A.

EFT

B.

Bank wire

C.

ACH

D.

ALL

Question 67

Letters of credit are also known as:

Options:

A.

Allowance for loan losses

B.

Bond indentures

C.

Term certificate

D.

Customer acceptances

Question 68

__________ allows businesses that sell durable goods such as automobiles to finance inventories. As the business sells goods, the loan advance against those goods is repaid.

Options:

A.

Term loans

B.

Short-term working

C.

capital loans

D.

Floor-plan financing

Question 69

The term “thrift institution” is referred to:

Options:

A.

Savings banks

B.

Savings and loan associations

C.

Saving banks and saving loan associations

D.

Mortgage banks

Question 70

Preliminary prospectuses are often called:

Options:

A.

Red hearing

B.

Introductory Notes

C.

Initial Coverage

D.

None of these

Question 71

Life insurance includes all of following the products EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Mortgage life insurance

B.

Straight life insurance

C.

Specialty life insurance

D.

Permanent life insurance

Question 72

Policy holders of whole life insurance use the cash dividends in many ways as:

Options:

A.

To lower or vanish premium

B.

To purchase more insurance

C.

To pay more term insurance

D.

All of these

Question 73

Commercial banks create money by:

Options:

A.

Making loans

B.

Selling government bonds to the public

C.

Placing reserves at the Federal Reserve Bank.

D.

Repurchasing their stock on the open market.

Question 74

Which one of the following is an additional duty of trust department?

Options:

A.

Dividends Reinvestment Agent

B.

Stock Registrar

C.

Bond Registrar

D.

All of the above

Question 75

Asset/Liability (ALM) is a short and long term planning tool designed to maximize earnings. ALM tries to create optimal risk/reward decisions and focuses on creating prices that achieve spread. A sound ALM policy must manage following types of risks EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Credit Risk

B.

Control Risk

C.

Liquidity Risk

D.

Capital Risk

Question 76

Securities available for resale, by the bank, should be reported at:

Options:

A.

Principal value

B.

Principal value + interest rate

C.

Fair value

D.

All of these

Page: 1 / 19
Total 511 questions