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Free and Premium Checkpoint 156-915.80 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 502 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert Update - R80.10 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Can you implement a complete IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?

Options:

A.

No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.

B.

Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.

C.

Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.

D.

No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.

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Question 2

You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object. What are possible reasons for that?

Exhibit:

1) fw2 is a member in a VPN community.

2) ClusterXL software blade is not enabled on fw2.

3) fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.

Options:

A.

2 or 3

B.

1 or 2

C.

1 or 3

D.

All

Question 3

Fill in the blanks. To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax __ ___ __ __________ __ .

Options:

Question 4

Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and accurate view of network activity but also performance should beguaranteed. Which actions should be taken to achieve that?

1) Use same hard drive for database directory, log files, and temporary directory.

2) Use Consolidation Rules.

3) Limit logging to blocked traffic only.

4) Use Multiple Database Tables.

Options:

A.

2, 4

B.

1, 3, 4

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

1, 2

Question 5

Which statements about Management HA are correct?

1) Primary SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter

2) Active SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole

3) Active SmartCenter describes first installed SmartCenter

4) Primary SmartCenter is always used to administrate with SmartConsole

Options:

A.

1 and 4

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

3 and 4

Question 6

Match the VPN-related terms with their definitions. Each correct term is only used once.

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5

B.

A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2

C.

A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1

D.

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Question 7

A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.

Options:

A.

There is no limit.

B.

16

C.

6

D.

2

Question 8

Which of the following items should be configured for the Security Management Server to authenticate using LDAP?

Options:

A.

Check Point Password

B.

WMI object

C.

Domain Adminusername

D.

Windows logon password

Question 9

To stop acceleration on a GAiA Security Gateway, enter command:

Options:

Question 10

To bind a NIC to a single processor when using CoreXL on GAiA, you would use the command

Options:

Question 11

Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?

Options:

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl sync

C.

fw ctl pstat

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 12

When a packet is flowing through the security gateway, which one of the following is a valid inspection path?

Options:

A.

Acceleration Path

B.

Small Path

C.

Firewall Path

D.

Medium Path

Question 13

What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R80?

Options:

A.

To allow SmartEvent R80 to function properly with all other R71 devices.

B.

To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.

C.

As a base for starting and building exclusions.

D.

To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.

Question 14

Match the ClusterXL modes with their configurations.

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

B.

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5

C.

A-3, B-5, C-1, D-4

D.

A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1

Question 15

Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in GAiA?

Options:

A.

In the CLI with the command “route add”

B.

In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes

C.

In the CLI via sysconfig

D.

In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology

Question 16

Your expanding network currently includes ClusterXL runningMulticast mode on two members, as shown in this topology:

Exhibit:

You need to add interfaces: 10.10.10.1/24 on Member A, and 10.10.10.2/24 on Member B. The virtual IP address for these interfaces is 10.10.10.3/24. Both cluster gateways have a Quad card with an available eth3 interface. What is the correct procedure to add these interfaces?

Options:

A.

1. Disable "Cluster membership" from one Gateway via cpconfig.2. Configure the new interface via sysconfig from the "non-member" Gateway.3. Re-enable "Cluster membership" on the Gateway.4. Perform the same steps on the other Gateway.5. Update the topology in the cluster object.6. Install the Security Policy.

B.

1. Configure the new interface on both members using WebUI.2. Update the new topology in the cluster object from SmartDashboard.3. Define virtual IP in the Dashboard4. Install the Security Policy.

C.

1. Use WebUI to configure the new interfaces on both member.2. Update the topology in the cluster object.3. Reboot both gateways.4. Install the Security Policy.

D.

1. Use the command ifconfig to configure and enable the new interface on both members.2. Update the topology in the cluster object for the cluster and both members.3. Install the Security Policy.4. Reboot the gateway.

Question 17

Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

Options:

A.

TACACS

B.

Captive Portal

C.

Check Point Password

D.

Windowspassword

Question 18

Fill in the blank. What is the correct command and syntax used to view a connection table summary on a Check Point Firewall?

Options:

Question 19

You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN mean?

Options:

A.

The cluster link is down.

B.

The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.

C.

Thephysical interface is down.

D.

CCP pakets couldn't be sent to or didn't arrive from neighbor member.

Question 20

Type the command and syntax to configure the Cluster Control Protocol (CCP) to use Broadcast.

Options:

Question 21

Fill in the blank. To enter the router shell, use command __________ .

Options:

Question 22

Which file defines the fields for each object used in the file objects.C (color, num/string, default value…)?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/classes.C

B.

$FWDIR/conf/scheam.C

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fields.C

D.

$FWDIR/conf/table.C

Question 23

Type the full fw command and syntax that will show full synchronization status.

Options:

Question 24

If you need strong protection for the encryption of user data, what option would be the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Use Diffie-Hellman for key construction and pre-shared keys for Quick Mode. Choose SHA in QuickMode and encrypt with AES. Use AH protocol. Switch to Aggressive Mode.

B.

When you need strong encryption, IPsec is not the best choice. SSL VPN’s are a better choice.

C.

Use certificates for Phase 1, SHA for all hashes, AES for all encryption and PFS, anduse ESP protocol.

D.

Disable Diffie-Hellman by using stronger certificate based key-derivation. Use AES-256 bit on all encrypted channels and add PFS to QuickMode. Use double encryption by implementing AH and ESP as protocols.

Question 25

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a newadministrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?

Options:

A.

Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

B.

Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.

C.

Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

D.

Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.

Question 26

Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R80 uses to validate connection attempts? Select the response below that includes the MOST complete list of valid authentication methods.

Options:

A.

Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session

B.

Connection, User, Client

C.

User, Client, Session

D.

User, Proxied, Session

Question 27

Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?

Options:

A.

upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.

B.

Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security Gateway version.

C.

upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be included or excluded before exporting.

D.

This command is no longer supported in GAiA.

Question 28

Users with Identity Awareness Agent installed on their machines login with __________, so that when the user logs into thedomain, that information is also used to meet Identity Awareness credential requests.

Options:

A.

Key-logging

B.

ICA Certificates

C.

SecureClient

D.

Single Sign-On

Question 29

Which of the following allows administrators to allow or deny traffic to or from a specific network based on the user’s credentials?

Options:

A.

Access Policy

B.

Access Role

C.

Access Rule

D.

Access Certificate

Question 30

Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?

Options:

A.

fw printver

B.

fw ver

C.

fw stat

D.

cpstat -gw

Question 31

Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

Export setup

B.

DHCP Server configuration

C.

GUI Clients

D.

Time & Date

Question 32

How granular may an administrator filter an Access Role with identity awareness? Per:

Options:

A.

Specific ICA Certificate

B.

AD User

C.

Radius Group

D.

Windows Domain

Question 33

Your R80 primary Security Management Server is installed on GAiA. You plan to schedule the Security Management Server to run fw logswitch automatically every 48 hours. How do you create this schedule?

Options:

A.

On a GAiA Security Management Server, this can only be accomplished byconfiguring the command fw logswitch via the cron utility.

B.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the primary Security Management Server object’s Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

C.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Open the Security Gateway object's Logs and Masters window, enable Schedule log switch, and select the Time object.

D.

Create a time object, and add 48 hours as the interval. Select that time object’sGlobal Properties > Logs and Masters window, to schedule a logswitch.

Question 34

You are a Security Administrator who has installed Security Gateway R80 on your network. You need to allow a specific IP address range for a partner site to access your intranet Web server. To limit the partner’s access for HTTP and FTP only, you did the following:

1)Created manual Static NAT rules for the Web server.

2) Cleared the following settings in the Global Properties > Network Address Translation screen:

- Allow bi-directional NAT

- Translate destination on client side

Do the above settings limit the partner’s access?

Options:

A.

Yes. This will ensure that traffic only matches the specific rule configured for this traffic, and that the Gateway translates the traffic after accepting the packet.

B.

No. The first setting is not applicable. The second setting will reduce performance.

C.

Yes. Both of these settings are only applicable to automatic NAT rules.

D.

No. The first setting is only applicable to automatic NAT rules. The second setting will force translation by the kernel on the interface nearest to the client.

Question 35

Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?

Options:

A.

snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a GAiA Security Gateway.

B.

snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.

C.

snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.

D.

A Gateway snapshotincludes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.

Question 36

You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an internal Web Serverthat has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address. You have an unused valid IP address on the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router. You control the router that sits between the firewall external interface and the Internet.

What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot be used on your Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

B.

Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall's external address.

C.

Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.

D.

Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.

Question 37

Your perimeter Security Gateway’sexternal IP is 200.200.200.3. Your network diagram shows:

Required: Allow only network 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 to go out to the Internet, using 200.200.200.5.

The local network 192.168.1.0/24 needs to use 200.200.200.3 to go out to the Internet.

Assuming you enable all the settings in the NAT page of Global Properties, how could you achieve these requirements?

Options:

A.

Create network objects for 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Enable Hide NAT on both network objects, using 200.200.200.5 as hiding IPaddress. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.3 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.5.

B.

Create an Address Range object, starting from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.20.254. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page of the address range object. Enter Hiding IP address 200.200.200.5. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.

C.

Create a network object 192.168.0.0/16. Enable Hide NAT on the NAT page. Enter 200.200.200.5 as the hiding IP address. Add an ARP entry for 200.200.200.5 for the MAC address of 200.200.200.3.

D.

Create two network objects: 192.168.10.0/24 and 192.168.20.0/24. Add the two network objects to a group object. Create a manual NAT rule like the following: Original source - group object; Destination - any; Service - any; Translatedsource - 200.200.200.5; Destination - original; Service - original.

Question 38

A snapshot deliversa complete GAiA backup. The resulting file can be stored on servers or as a local file in /var/CPsnapshot/snapshots. How do you restore a local snapshot named MySnapshot.tgz?

Options:

A.

Reboot the system and call the start menu. Select the option Snapshot Management, provide the Expert password and select [L] for a restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.

B.

As expert user, type the command snapshot -r MySnapshot.tgz.

C.

As expert user, type the command revert --file MySnapshot.tgz.

D.

As expert user, type the command snapshot - R to restore from a local file. Then, provide the correct file name.

Question 39

What type of traffic can be re-directed to the Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

HTTP

C.

All of the above

D.

FTP

Question 40

Several Security Policies can be used for different installation targets. The Firewall protecting Human Resources’ servers should have its own Policy Package. These rules must be installed on this machine and not onthe Internet Firewall. How can this be accomplished?

Options:

A.

A Rule Base is always installed on all possible targets. The rules to be installed on a Firewall are defined by the selection in the Rule Base row Install On.

B.

When selecting the correct Firewall in each line of the Rule Base row Install On, only this Firewall is shown in the list of possible installation targets after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

C.

In the menu of SmartDashboard, go to Policy > Policy Installation Targets and select the correct firewall via Specific Targets.

D.

A Rule Base can always be installed on any Check Point Firewall object. It is necessary to select the appropriate target directly after selecting Policy > Install on Target.

Question 41

A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT. Client side NAT is not checked in the Global Properties. A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server. Assuming there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the Web server?

Options:

A.

Automatic ARP must be uncheckedin the Global Properties.

B.

Nothing else must be configured.

C.

A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.

D.

A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway’s upstream router.

Question 42

Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?

Options:

A.

fw cpinfo

B.

cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt

C.

diag

D.

cpstat - date.cpstat.txt

Question 43

Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?

Options:

A.

$CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib

B.

$FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib

C.

It is obtained only by request from the TAC.

D.

There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.

Question 44

Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC) Certificates. SIC Certificates:

Options:

A.

Are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartDashboard and the Security Management Server.

B.

For R75 Security Gateways are created during the Security Management Server installation.

C.

Decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the Security Management Servers and the Security Gateway.

D.

Uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN Certificates.

Question 45

You cannot use SmartDashboard’s User Directory features to connect to the LDAP server. What should you investigate?

1) Verify you have read-only permissions as administrator for the operating system.

2) Verify there are no restrictions blocking SmartDashboard's User Manager from connecting to the LDAP server.

3) Check that the login Distinguished Name configured has root permission (or at least write permission Administrative access) in the LDAP Server's access control configuration.

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3

B.

2 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

1 and 3

Question 46

A host on the Internet initiates traffic to the Static NAT IP of your Web server behind the Security Gateway. With the default settings in place for NAT, the initiating packet will translate the_________.

Options:

A.

destination on server side

B.

source on server side

C.

source on client side

D.

destination on client side

Question 47

Which Check Point address translation method allows an administrator to use fewer ISP-assigned IP addresses than the number of internal hosts requiring Internet connectivity?

Options:

A.

Hide

B.

Static Destination

C.

Static Source

D.

Dynamic Destination

Question 48

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to a set of designated IP addresses to minimize malwareinfection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

He has received a new laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization.The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19).

He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources, and installs the policy.

2) Adds anaccess role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location and installs policy.

John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and was not able to connect to the HR Web server. What is the next BEST troubleshooting step?

Options:

A.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

B.

Install the Identity Awareness Agent

C.

Set static IP to DHCP

D.

After enabling Identity Awareness, reboot the gateway

Question 49

You have three servers located in a DMZ, using private IP addresses. You wantinternal users from 10.10.10.x to access the DMZ servers by public IP addresses. Internal_net 10.10.10.x is configured for Hide NAT behind the Security Gateway’s external interface.

What is the best configuration for 10.10.10.x users to access the DMZservers, using the DMZ servers’ public IP addresses?

Options:

A.

When connecting to internal network 10.10.10.x, configure Hide NAT for the DMZ network behind the Security Gateway DMZ interface.

B.

When the source is the internal network 10.10.10.x, configure manual static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

C.

When connecting to the Internet, configure manual Static NAT rules to translate the DMZ servers.

D.

When trying to access DMZ servers, configure Hide NAT for 10.10.10.x behind the DMZ’sinterface.

Question 50

You are MegaCorp’s Security Administrator. There are various network objects which must be NATed. Some ofthem use the Automatic Hide NAT method, while others use the Automatic Static NAT method. What is the rule order if both methods are used together? Give the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

The Administrator decides the rule order by shifting the corresponding rules up and down.

B.

The Static NAT rules have priority over the Hide NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priority over the NAT on a network or an address range.

C.

The Hide NAT rules have priority over the Static NAT rules and the NAT on a node has priorityover the NAT on a network or an address range.

D.

The rule position depends on the time of their creation. The rules created first are placed at the top; rules created later are placed successively below the others.

Question 51

Which of the following process pulls applications monitoring status?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpwd

D.

cpd

Question 52

To findrecords in the logs that shows log records from the Application & URL Filtering Software Blade where traffic was blocked, what would be the query syntax?

Options:

A.

blade: application control AND action:block

B.

blade; “application control” AND action;block

C.

(blade: application control AND action;block)

D.

blade: “application control” AND action:block

Question 53

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Threat Simulation

C.

Threat Extraction

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 54

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

Options:

A.

fw ctl dbg –a 0

B.

fw ctl dbg resetall

C.

fw ctl debug 0

D.

fw ctl debug set 0

Question 55

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2 (OS) images

B.

Images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the most new image

Question 56

In SmartEvent, what are the different types of automatic reactions that the administrator can configure?

Options:

A.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script, SNMP Trap

B.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, Block Services, SNMP Trap

C.

Mail, Block Source, Block Destination, External Script, SNMP Trap

D.

Mail, Block Source, Block Event Activity, Packet Capture, SNMP Trap

Question 57

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

Question 58

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

Options:

A.

1 – 254

B.

1 – 255

C.

0 –254

D.

0 – 255

Question 59

Fill in the blank: The command _______________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport –p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 60

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n)_________ or ___________ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

Question 61

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

Options:

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

Question 62

Which one ofthe following processes below would not start if there was a licensing issue.

Options:

A.

CPD

B.

CPCA

C.

FWM

D.

CPWD

Question 63

If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

Options:

A.

Nothing

B.

TCP FIN

C.

TCP RST

D.

ICMP unreachable

Question 64

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewalltraffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

Options:

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does

C.

This statement is true becauseSecureXL does improve this traffic

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected

Question 65

Which process handles connections from SmartConsole R80?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 66

How can SmartView Web application be accessed?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartview

B.

https:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

Question 67

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

Question 68

The “MAC magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

Options:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are morethan two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

Question 69

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 70

As an administrator, you may berequired to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

Question 71

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3minutes to complete

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than asecond to complete

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

Question 72

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R80.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solutions?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failoveris an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

Question 73

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enablespowerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLEserver

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Question 74

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is themost accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l -a -r -v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

Question 75

Which of the following is a task of the CPD process?

Options:

A.

Invoke and monitor critical processes and attempts to restart them if they fail

B.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

C.

Log forwarding

D.

Responsible for processing most traffic on a security gateway

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Total 502 questions