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Free and Premium Checkpoint 156-215.81 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 411 questions

Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 CCSA (156-215.81.20) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

Options:

A.

Object Browser

B.

Object Editor

C.

Object Navigator

D.

Object Explorer

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Question 2

CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.

The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.

How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.

B.

Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.

C.

The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.

D.

Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.

Question 3

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

Question 4

When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

B.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

C.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

D.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

Question 5

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

Question 6

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

Question 7

Which option in tracking allows you to see the amount of data passed in the connection?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Accounting

C.

Logs

D.

Advanced

Question 8

You want to set up a VPN tunnel to a external gateway. You had to make sure that the IKE P2 SA will only be established between two subnets and not all subnets defined in the default VPN domain of your gateway.

Options:

A.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Management add the following line to the $FWDIR/conf/user.def.FWI file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { );

B.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Selecting the local gateway in the Community you can set the VPN Domain to 'User defined' and put in the local network.

C.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Gateway add the following line to the $FWDlR/cont/user.def.FW1 file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { };

D.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Go to Security Policies / Access Control and create an in-line layer rule with source and destination containing the two networks used for the IKE P2 SA. Put the name of the Community in the VPN column.

Question 9

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Options:

A.

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

B.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

C.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

D.

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

Question 10

True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

Question 11

To increase security, the administrator has modified the Core protection ‘Host Port Scan’ from ‘Medium’ to ‘High’ Predefined Sensitivity. Which Policy should the administrator install after Publishing the changes?

Options:

A.

The Access Control and Threat Prevention Policies.

B.

The Access Control Policy.

C.

The Access Control & HTTPS Inspection Policy.

D.

The Threat Prevention Policy.

Question 12

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Question 13

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Options:

A.

Command line interface; WebUI

B.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

C.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

D.

GaiaUI; command line interface

Question 14

Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Internal Certificate Authority

B.

Token

C.

One-time Password

D.

Certificate

Question 15

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as the following

Options:

A.

Security Policy Management and Log Analysis

B.

Security Policy Management. Log Analysis. System Health Monitoring. Multi-Domain Security Management.

C.

Security Policy Management Log Analysis and System Health Monitoring

D.

Security Policy Management. Threat Prevention rules. System Health Monitoring and Multi-Domain Security Management.

Question 16

One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

AdminC sees a lock icon which indicates that the rule is locked for editing by another administrator.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

AdminB sees a pencil icon next the rule that AdminB is currently editing.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 17

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Options:

A.

Distributed

B.

Standalone

C.

Bridge Mode

D.

Targeted

Question 18

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

Question 19

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Options:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

Question 20

View the rule below. What does the pen-symbol in the left column mean?

Options:

A.

Those rules have been published in the current session.

B.

Rules have been edited by the logged in administrator, but the policy has not been published yet.

C.

Another user has currently locked the rules for editing.

D.

The configuration lock is present. Click the pen symbol in order to gain the lock.

Question 21

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

Question 22

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Question 23

Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, WebUI, or CLI

B.

WebUI, CLI, or SmartUpdate

C.

CLI, SmartUpdate, or SmartBackup

D.

SmartUpdate, SmartBackup, or SmartConsole

Question 24

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Options:

A.

remote access clients.

B.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

C.

users and user groups.

D.

All of the above.

Question 25

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____

Options:

A.

GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)

B.

Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell

C.

Command line interface; GAiA Portal

D.

Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)

Question 26

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

Question 27

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

Gateway and Servers

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Manage Seeting

D.

Security Policies

Question 28

In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Hide; source

B.

Static; source

C.

Simple; source

D.

Hide; destination

Question 29

Phase 1 of the two-phase negotiation process conducted by IKE operates in ______ mode.

Options:

A.

Main

B.

Authentication

C.

Quick

D.

High Alert

Question 30

By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

Options:

A.

8080

B.

80

C.

4434

D.

443

Question 31

Fill in the blank RADIUS Accounting gets_____data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Payload

C.

Destination

D.

Identity

Question 32

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There are two default users and neither can be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Question 33

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

Question 34

Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

Question 35

Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Options:

A.

Logs & Monitoring

B.

Smart Event

C.

Gateways & Severs Tab

D.

SmartView Monitor

Question 36

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

show interfaces

C.

show interfaces detail

D.

show configuration interface

Question 37

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Question 38

John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole. To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

Options:

A.

Logout of the session

B.

File > Save

C.

Install database

D.

Publish the session

Question 39

What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Options:

A.

It transports packets as datagrams along different routes to reach their destination.

B.

It manages the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application.

C.

It defines the protocols that are used to exchange data between networks and how host programs interact with the Application layer.

D.

It deals with all aspects of the physical components of network connectivity and connects with different network types.

Question 40

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Options:

A.

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

Question 41

With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

Options:

A.

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

B.

The IP address of the source machine.

C.

The end user credentials.

D.

The host portion of the URL.

Question 42

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Question 43

Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Options:

A.

Formal; corporate

B.

Local; formal

C.

Local; central

D.

Central; local

Question 44

When a Security Gateway communicates about its status to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option was chosen?

Options:

A.

Targeted

B.

Bridge Mode

C.

Distributed

D.

Standalone

Question 45

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 46

Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic

B.

Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as deeply examining their content.

C.

Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection's state

D.

Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.

Question 47

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.

B.

When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.

C.

Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).

D.

When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.

Question 48

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Revisions

B.

Gateway installations

C.

Installation history

D.

Gateway history

Question 49

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

Question 50

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

Question 51

What data MUST be supplied to the SmartConsole System Restore window to restore a backup?

Options:

A.

Server, Username, Password, Path, Version

B.

Username, Password, Path, Version

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Destination Path

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path

Question 52

Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides comprehensive protection against malicious and unwanted network traffic, focusing on application and server vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

Anti-Virus

C.

Anti-Spam

D.

Anti-bot

Question 53

Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?

Options:

A.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

B.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.

C.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.

D.

1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.

Question 54

Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?

Options:

A.

Pre-shared secret

B.

Diffie-Hellman Public Key

C.

Symmetrical IPSec key

D.

Diffie-Hellman Private Key

Question 55

Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Question 56

Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

Identity Collector

B.

Endpoint VPN client

C.

SmartConsole

D.

Proxy Server

Question 57

Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility. Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT.

B.

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

C.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

D.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NAT.

Question 58

The purpose of the Communication Initialization process is to establish a trust between the Security Management Server and the Check Point gateways. Which statement best describes this Secure Internal

Communication (SIC)?

Options:

A.

After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA.

B.

Secure Internal Communications authenticates the security gateway to the SMS before http communications are allowed.

C.

A SIC certificate is automatically generated on the gateway because the gateway hosts a subordinate CA to the SMS ICA.

D.

New firewalls can easily establish the trust by using the expert password defined on the SMS and the SMS IP address.

Question 59

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 60

A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

Options:

A.

Allow security audits.

B.

Handle traffic as defined in the policy.

C.

Monitor sequence activity.

D.

Block suspicious activity.

Question 61

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

Question 62

Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Options:

A.

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

B.

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

C.

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

D.

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

Question 63

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

Question 64

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

Question 65

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

Question 66

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

B.

Proactively detects threats

C.

Delivers file with original content

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Question 67

Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.

Options:

A.

User and objects databases

B.

Network databases

C.

SmartConsole databases

D.

User databases

Question 68

What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole’s tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

Options:

A.

The Global one also saves and published the session before installation.

B.

The Global one can install multiple selected policies at the same time.

C.

The local one does not install the Anti-Malware policy along with the Network policy.

D.

The second one pre-select the installation for only the current policy and for the applicable gateways.

Question 69

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

Options:

A.

add users to your Gaia system.

B.

assign privileges to users.

C.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

D.

edit the home directory of the user.

Question 70

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

Question 71

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

Question 72

A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

Options:

A.

The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.

B.

Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.

C.

The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.

D.

The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

Question 73

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

Question 74

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

Question 75

Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

Central

B.

Corporate

C.

Local

D.

Formal

Question 76

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.

There is High Availability solution set up

Question 77

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

Options:

A.

I have changed this rule

B.

Someone else has changed this rule

C.

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

D.

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

Question 78

What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Application Control, DLP

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

C.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

D.

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

Question 79

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Question 80

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

Question 81

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

Question 82

Fill in the blank: An Endpoint identity agent uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Token

C.

Username/password or Kerberos Ticket

D.

Certificate

Question 83

If an administrator wants to restrict access to a network resource only allowing certain users to access it, and only when they are on a specific network what is the best way to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Create an inline layer where the destination is the target network resource Define sub-rules allowing only specific sources to access the target resource

B.

Use a "New Legacy User at Location", specifying the LDAP user group that the users belong to, at the desired location

C.

Create a rule allowing only specific source IP addresses access to the target network resource.

D.

Create an Access Role object, with specific users or user groups specified, and specific networks defined Use this access role as the "Source" of an Access Control rule

Question 84

Name the utility that is used to block activities that appear to be suspicious.

Options:

A.

Penalty Box

B.

Drop Rule in the rulebase

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM)

D.

Stealth rule

Question 85

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Shared Secret Passwords

B.

Unique Passwords

C.

Shared User Certificates

D.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

Question 86

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config -f

C.

save config -o

D.

save configuration

Question 87

Fill in the blank: The _____ feature allows administrators to share a policy with other policy packages.

Options:

A.

Concurrent policy packages

B.

Concurrent policies

C.

Global Policies

D.

Shared policies

Question 88

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

Question 89

What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Endpoint Security Client

B.

Full Agent

C.

Light Agent

D.

System Agent

Question 90

Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Options:

A.

Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

B.

Perpetual and Trial

C.

Evaluation and Subscription

D.

Subscription and Perpetual

Question 91

In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Options:

A.

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

B.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

C.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

D.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

Question 92

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 93

What is NOT an advantage of Packet Filtering?

Options:

A.

Application Independence

B.

High Performance

C.

Scalability

D.

Low Security and No Screening above Network Layer

Question 94

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

Options:

A.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.

B.

A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.

C.

3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.

D.

A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Question 95

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

Question 96

Check Point licenses come in two forms. What are those forms?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

B.

On-premise and Public Cloud

C.

Central and Local.

D.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

Question 97

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a______________to trust a Terminal Server Identity Agent.

Options:

A.

One-time password

B.

Shared secret

C.

Certificate

D.

Token

Question 98

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

Question 99

What are the three main components of Check Point security management architecture?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole, Security Management, and Security Gateway

B.

Smart Console, Standalone, and Security Management

C.

SmartConsole, Security policy, and Logs & Monitoring

D.

GUI-Client, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Question 100

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

Question 101

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 102

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

Question 103

What are the three types of UserCheck messages?

Options:

A.

inform, ask, and block

B.

block, action, and warn

C.

action, inform, and ask

D.

ask, block, and notify

Question 104

The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances. How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

Options:

A.

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

B.

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

C.

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

D.

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

Question 105

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

Options:

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

Question 106

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

D.

Security Management Server

Question 107

Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Options:

A.

Security Gateway Contract file

B.

Service Contract file

C.

License Management file

D.

License Contract file

Question 108

A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?

Options:

A.

In the system SMEM memory pool.

B.

In State tables.

C.

In the Sessions table.

D.

In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Question 109

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES-128

C.

DES

D.

AES-256

Question 110

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Options:

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

Question 111

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Options:

A.

Log

B.

Full Log

C.

Detailed Log

D.

Extended Log

Question 112

Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Certificate

C.

MD5

D.

Pre-shared secret

Question 113

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

Question 114

Where can alerts be viewed?

Options:

A.

Alerts can be seen in SmartView Monitor

B.

Alerts can be seen in the Threat Prevention policy.

C.

Alerts can be seen in SmartUpdate.

D.

Alerts can be seen from the CLI of the gateway.

Question 115

Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

Options:

A.

Yes - a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.

B.

No - each layer must be unique.

C.

No - layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.

D.

Yes - but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

Question 116

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliance changes.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where the license is tied changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

Question 117

How do you manage Gaia?

Options:

A.

Through CLI and WebUI

B.

Through CLI only

C.

Through SmartDashboard only

D.

Through CLI, WebUI, and SmartDashboard

Question 118

The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Options:

A.

Major version upgrades to R77.30

B.

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

C.

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

D.

All upgrades

Question 119

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

Question 120

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall's interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall's interfaces.

Question 121

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

logswitch

C.

Database Revision

D.

snapshot

Question 122

Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

Options:

A.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear the cache, and restore changes.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom's changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom's changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

Question 123

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

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