Free and Premium Checkpoint 156-215.81 Dumps Questions Answers

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia, which is a unified operating system for all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized gateways. However, some product deployments utilize special Check Point code, such as Scalable Platforms (formerly known as Maestro), which are high-performance security gateways that can scale up to 1.5 Tbps of firewall throughput. Scalable Platforms use a special version of Gaia OS called Gaia Embedded, which is planned to be unified with Gaia OS in R81.102. References: Check Point R81 Release Notes

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh, which provides a limited set of commands for basic configuration and troubleshooting. To change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell (also known as expert mode) to run Linux commands, the administrator needs to execute the command ‘expert’ in the cli.sh shell

 Address translation is not a role of the SmartCenter, as it is performed by the Security Gateway based on the NAT policy configured in the SmartConsole5. The other options are roles of the SmartCenter, as it is responsible for status monitoring, policy configuration, and certificate authority for the Security Gateways5.

References: Gaia R81.10 Administration Guide, QUANTUM SECURITY MANAGEMENT R81, Remote Access VPN R81 Administration Guide

The correct answer is D because sending API commands over an http connection using web-services is not one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s3. The Management API’s support HTTPS protocol only, not HTTP3. The other methods are valid ways to communicate using the Management API’s3. References: Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Application information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option4. The “Extended Log” option provides additional information about the application, such as name, category, risk, and technology4. References: LOGGINGAND MONITORING R80

 Security Gateway software blades must be attached to a Security Gateway container. A Security Gateway container is a logical object that represents a physical or virtual machine that runs the Security Gateway software. A software blade is a modular security feature that can be enabled or disabled on a Security Gateway container. A software blade can provide functions such as firewall, VPN, IPS, anti-virus, anti-bot, application control, URL filtering, etc.References: [Security Gateway Containers], [Software Blades]

The SOLR database is used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities3 . SOLR is an open source enterprise search platform that provides fast and scalable indexing and searching of data. It supports advanced features such as faceting, highlighting, spell checking, synonyms, etc. The SOLR database is used by Check Point products such as SmartLog and SmartEvent to store and query logs and events3 . The other options are incorrect. Option B is false, as SOLR does not write data to the database, but only reads data from it. Option C is false, as SOLR does not serve GUI, but only provides a RESTful API for queries. Option D is false, as SOLR does not enable powerful matching capabilities and write data to the database, but only enables powerful matching capabilities. References: SOLR - Check Point Software, [Apache Solr]

The command that shows the installed licenses in Expert mode is cplic print. This command displays information about the licenses that are installed on the local machine or a remote machine1. The other commands are not valid for showing licenses in Expert mode. 

The statement that best describes Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is: After successful initialization, the gateway can communicate with any Check Point node that possesses a SIC certificate signed by the same ICA. SIC is a mechanism that ensures secure communication between Check Point components by using certificates that are issued by an Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)3. The other statements are not accurate descriptions of SIC.

 From the Gaia web interface, the operation that CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server is Verify a Security Policy. This operation can only be done from SmartConsole4. References: Check Point R81 SmartConsole Online Help

The command api status shows the API server status, including whether it is enabled or not, the port number, and the API version1. References: Check Point R81 API Reference Guide

The Object Explorer is the part of SmartConsole that allows administrators to add, edit, delete, and clone objects. Objects are entities that represent network elements, such as hosts, networks, gateways, services, users, etc. The Object Explorer provides a tree view of all the objects in the database and allows searching, filtering, and grouping them2. References: Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 User Guide

According to the Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole for Windows1, to restore a backup, you need to supply the following data: Server, Protocol, Username, Password, and Path. The Server is the IP address or hostname of the Security Management Server. The Protocol is either SCP or SFTP. The Username and Password are the credentials for the Security Management Server. The Path is the location of the backup file on the Security Management Server. References: Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole for Windows

SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and SmartView Web Application allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events1. SmartView Web Application is a web-based interface that provides access to SmartEvent reports and dashboards2. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, Check Point R81 SmartEvent Administration Guide

The purpose of a Stealth Rule is to drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed1, p. 32. A Stealth Rule is usually placed at the top of the rule base, before any other rule that allows traffic to the Security Gateway2, p. 13. A Stealth Rule is not used to hide a server’s IP address, to allow administrators to access SmartDashboard, or to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test

 In Hide NAT, only the source IP address is translated to a different IP address4. This is used to hide a group of hosts behind a single IP address, usually the external interface of the Security Gateway. References: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide

The option that allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities is Specific VPN Communities4. This option enables you to define which VPN communities are allowed in the rule. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted) allows traffic to any destination, regardless of whether it is encrypted or not. Accept all encrypted traffic allows traffic to any encrypted destination, regardless of the VPN community. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities allows traffic to any site-to-site VPN gateway, regardless of the VPN community4. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Specific VPN Communities.

The reason why querying logs now are very fast is that Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results. Indexing Engine is a component of R81 Management that creates and maintains an index of log data, which enables quick and efficient log searches4. The other options are not related to the speed of log querying. The amount of logs being stored may vary depending on the log retention settings. New Smart-1 appliances may have improved hardware specifications, but they do not affect the log querying process directly. SmartConsole queries results from the Security Management Server, not from the Security Gateway.

References: 1: HTTPS Inspection 2: Browser-Based Authentication 3: URL Filtering 4: Indexing Engine

The correct answer is D because from SecureXL perspective, the three paths of traffic flow are Firewall Path, Accelerated Path, and Medium Path3. The Firewall Path is used when SecureXL is disabled or traffic is not eligible for acceleration3. The Accelerated Path is used when SecureXL handles the entire connection and bypasses the Firewall kernel3. The Medium Path is used when SecureXL handles part of the connection and forwards packets to the Firewall kernel for further inspection3. The other options are not valid paths of traffic flow from SecureXL perspective3. References: Check Point R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide

The command that shows the installed licenses is cplic print. This command displays the license information on a Check Point server or Security Gateway. It shows the license type, expiration date, attached blades, etc. The other options are incorrect. print cplic is not a valid command. fwlic print is not a valid command. show licenses is not a valid command. References: [How to check license status on SecurePlatform / Gaia from CLI]

Browser-Based Authentication is the best method for enabling Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls for users who use company issued or personal laptops. Browser-Based Authentication redirects users to a web page where they enter their credentials to access the network resources. This method does not require any installation or configuration on the user’s device and supports any operating system and browser. AD Query is a method that queries Active Directory servers for user login events and maps them to IP addresses. This method does not work for personal laptops that are not joined to the domain. Identity Agents are software agents that run on Windows or macOS devices and provide user and machine identity information to the firewall. This method requires installation and management of the agents on each device, which may not be feasible for personal laptops. Terminal Servers Agent is a method that identifies users who connect to Windows Terminal Servers or Citrix servers via RDP or ICA protocols. This method does not apply to laptops that connect directly to the network910 References: Identity Awareness Reference Architecture and Best Practices, Part 10 - Identity

 Alerts can be viewed in SmartView Monitor, which is a graphical tool that provides real-time information about the network and security activities, such as traffic, VPN tunnels, threats, and performance4.

References: 4: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 25.

 DLP and Geo Policy are examples of Shared Policies. Shared Policies are policies that can be shared with other policy packages to save time and effort when managing multiple gateways with similar security requirements. Shared Policies can be applied to Access Control, Threat Prevention, and HTTPS Inspection layers. Other types of policies include Inspection Policies, Unified Policies, and Standard Policies. References: [Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 Resolved Issues]

When logging in for the first time to a Security Management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the SmartConsole cache and is available for future Security Management Server authentications. The fingerprint is a unique identifier of the Security Management Server that is used to verify its identity and prevent man-in-the-middle attacks. The SmartConsole cache is a local folder on the client machine that stores temporary files and settings.

References: Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81, p. 25-26

The answer is C because inline layer can be defined as a rule action in a policy layer. Inline layer is a sub-policy that contains additional rules that are applied only if the parent rule matches. Ordered layer is a policy layer that contains rules that are applied in order, from top to bottom. One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both. Pre-R80 Gateways do support ordered layers, but not inline layers5 References: Check Point R81 Policy Layers and Sub-Policies, [Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide]

 Application Control is the software blade that enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine. Application Control allows you to define granular rules for applications, web sites, web categories, web content types, and users. You can also use Application Control to monitor and block risky applications and web usage. References: [Application Control Administration Guide R80.40]

There are two default users on Gaia Platform and neither can be deleted. The two default users are admin and monitor. The admin user has full access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, such as CLI and WebUI. The monitor user has read-only access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, and can only view the system status and settings. These two users cannot be deleted, but their passwords can be changed.References: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]

 Captive Portal is a feature of Identity Awareness that allows you to authenticate users through a web browser before they access the Internet or corporate resources. Captive Portal can be used for various authentication methods, such as user name and password, one-time password (OTP), or certificate3. Captive Portal does not manage user permission in SmartConsole, provide remote access to SmartConsole, or authenticate users to the Gaia OS. Those are different functions that are not related to Captive Portal. References: Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide

SmartView Monitor is the tool that allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on SmartConsole. SmartView Monitor is a graphical tool that displays real-time network and security performance data, such as traffic, throughput, connections, CPU usage, memory usage, etc. You can use SmartView Monitor to identify the top bandwidth consumers and optimize your network performance.References: [SmartView Monitor], [Monitoring Network Traffic]

The order of NAT priorities is Static NAT, IP pool NAT, and hide NAT. Static NAT has the highest priority because it is a one-to-one mapping of a private IP address to a public IP address. IP pool NAT has the second highest priority because it is a one-to-many mapping of a private IP address to a pool of public IP addresses. Hide NAT has the lowest priority because it is a many-to-one mapping of multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address1.

References: 1: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 23.

The Next Generation Threat Emulation software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware1, p. 41. It emulates files in a virtual environment and inspects their behavior for malicious activity3. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point Threat Emulation Administration Guide R81

The answer is B because in R80 and above, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time. Every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators. This is called concurrent administration and it allows multiple administrators to work on the same policy package simultaneously34 References: Check Point R80.10 Concurrent Administration, Check Point R80.40 Security Management Administration Guide

To achieve the requirement of giving the Network Operations Center administrator access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes, but not to the expert mode, and still allowing her to run tcpdump, you need to:

• Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command. This command adds a new command to the Command Line Interface Shell (CLISH) that allows running tcpdump without entering the expert mode .
• Create a new access role. This option defines a set of permissions and commands that can be assigned to a user or a group of users.
• Add tcpdump to the role. This option grants the permission to run tcpdump to the role.
• Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user. This option creates a new user account with any User ID (UID) and assigns the role that has tcpdump permission to the user.

References: [How to add a new command to CLISH], [Check Point R81 Gaia Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide]

This answer is correct because for a certificate-based VPN tunnel, both gateways need to have a certificate issued by a certificate authority (CA) that they trust1. A CA is a trusted entity that verifies the identity of the gateways and signs their certificates2. The gateways can either use the same CA or different CAs, as long as they trust each other’s CA3. This way, the gateways can authenticate each other using their certificates and establish a secure VPN tunnel.

The other answers are not correct because they are either irrelevant or incompatible with certificate-based VPN tunnel. Shared secret passwords and unique passwords are used for pre-shared key (PSK) authentication, which is a different method than certificate authentication4. PSK authentication is less secure and more vulnerable to brute force attacks than certificate authentication. Shared user certificates are not used for gateway authentication, but for user authentication, which is a different level of authentication than gateway authentication. User authentication is optional and can be used in addition to gateway authentication to provide more granular access control.

• Configure server settings for P2S VPN Gateway connections - certificate authentication
• VPN certificates and how they work
• Create Certificate Based Site to Site VPN between 2 Check Point Gateways
• HowTo Set Up Certificate Based VPNs with Check Point Appliances

 A clean-up rule is a rule that is placed at the end of the security policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed by the previous rules. It is a best practice to have a clean-up rule to prevent unauthorized access and log the dropped packets for analysis12. The other options are not the purpose of a clean-up rule. References: Clean-up Rule, Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation

The correct answer is D because from SecureXL perspective, the three paths of traffic flow are Firewall Path, Accelerated Path, and Medium Path3. The Firewall Path is used when SecureXL is disabled or traffic is not eligible for acceleration3. The Accelerated Path is used when SecureXL handles the entire connection and bypasses the Firewall kernel3. The Medium Path is used when SecureXL handles part of the connection and forwards packets to the Firewall kernel for further inspection3. The other options are not valid paths of traffic flow from SecureXL perspective3. References: Check Point R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide

The answer is A because an identity server uses a shared secret for user authentication. A shared secret is a passphrase that is known by both the identity server and the user. The identity server sends a challenge to the user, who encrypts it with the shared secret and sends it back. The identity server then verifies the response and authenticates the user12 References: Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, Check Point R81 Identity Server

Threat Extraction delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed, such as macros, embedded objects, and scripts. This ensures that users receive clean and safe files in seconds12. References: Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection, Check Point Threat Extraction

 A firewall can NOT prevent a network bandwidth saturation attack, which is a type of denial-of-service (DoS) attack that aims to consume all the available bandwidth of a target network or device1, p. 9. A firewall can prevent other types of attacks, such as buffer overflow, SYN flood, and SQL injection, by inspecting packets and applying security rules2, p. 11-12. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, 156-315.81 Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test

The correct answer is A because the fwd daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands3. The fwm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and the GUI clients. The cpm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and SmartConsole. The cpd daemon monitors the status of critical processes on the Security Gateway. References: Check Point Firewall Processes and Daemons

To view the policy installation history for each gateway, an administrator would use the Installation history tool1, p. 22. The Installation history tool shows the date and time of each policy installation, the name of the administrator who installed it, and the status of the installation3. Revisions, Gateway installations, and Gateway history are not valid tools in SmartConsole. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point SmartConsole R81 Help

The VPN Domains configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear. The VPN Domain is the set of hosts and networks that are allowed to communicate securely with the gateway12. The firewall topologies, NAT rules, and the rule base do not directly affect the VPN encryption decision. References: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide, CCSA/CCSE Exam Tips & Content - R80.X vs. R81.X - Check Point CheckMates

The correct answer is A because the traffic from source 192.168.1.1 to is handled by the Slow Path if the Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic 2. The Slow Path is used when traffic requires inspection by one or more Software Blades2. The other paths are used for different scenarios2. References: Check Point R81 Performance Tuning Administration Guide

A standalone deployment is when the security management server and Security Gateway are installed on the same appliance. This is suitable for small or branch office environments1

Quick Mode Complete is the message that indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully2. IKE Phase 2 is also known as Quick Mode or Child SA in IKEv1 and IKEv2 respectively. Aggressive Mode and Main Mode are part of IKE Phase 1, which establishes the IKE SA. IKE Mode is not a valid term for IKE negotiation. References: How to Analyze IKE Phase 2 VPN Status Messages, IKEv2 Phase 1 (IKE SA) and Phase 2 (Child SA) Message Exchanges, Understand IPsec IKEv1 Protocol

The Threat Prevention policy is a unified policy that manages three software blades: IPS, Anti-Virus, and Threat Emulation7. The Threat Prevention policy enables you to configure settings and actions for detecting and preventing various types of threats, such as malware, exploits, botnets, etc. Application Control and URL Filtering are not part of the Threat Prevention policy, but they are part of a separate policy that controls access to applications and websites based on categories, users, groups, and machines

This answer is correct because a standalone deployment is a valid option for installing a Check Point Security Gateway and a Security Management Server on the same machine1. This option is suitable for small or medium-sized networks that do not require high availability or load balancing1.

The other answers are not correct because they are either invalid or irrelevant options for deployment. CloudSec deployment is not a valid option, but it might be confused with CloudGuard, which is a Check Point solution for securing cloud environments2. Disliked deployment is not a valid option, but it might be a typo for Distributed deployment, which is a valid option for installing a Check Point Security Gateway and a Security Management Server on separate machines1. Router only deployment is not a valid option, but it might be confused with Router mode, which is a configuration option for a Check Point Security Gateway that enables it to act as a router and forward packets between interfaces3.

• Gaia R81.20 Administration Guide
• CloudGuard Network Security
• Configuring Router Mode in Gaia Clish

The R80.10 management server can manage gateways with versions R76 and higher34. Versions lower than R76 are not supported by the R80.10 management server. References: Check Point R80.10 Release Notes, Free Check Point CCSA Sample Questions and Study Guide

The BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy is an Access Role. An Access Role object defines a set of users, machines, or networks that can access a resource or service1, p. 27. An Access Role object can include LDAP groups as one of its components2, p. 10. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point Identity Awareness Administration Guide R81

The technologies that are used to deny or permit network traffic are Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade. Stateful Inspection is a technology that inspects network traffic at the packet level and maintains the state and context of each connection. Firewall Blade is a software blade that enforces security policy and prevents unauthorized access to protected resources. URL/Application Blade is a software blade that enables administrators to control access to millions of websites and applications based on users, groups, and machines.

References: : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 9. : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 10. : Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 12.

The method to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server is Save Policy. Saving a policy updates the trusted log server with the latest policy and configuration changes3. References: Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide

The difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN is that IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed browser5 . IPSec VPN uses a pre-shared key or certificates to authenticate the endpoints and encrypts the data at the network layer. SSL VPN uses SSL/TLS protocols to authenticate the endpoints and encrypts the data at the application layer. References: Check Point Remote Access VPN Administration Guide R81, [Free Check Point CCSA Sample Questions and Study Guide]

The correct answer is A because detecting and blocking malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected is not a feature of the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade3. This feature is part of the Check Point Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot Blades3. The other options are features of the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade3. References: Check Point R81 URL Filtering and Application Control Administration Guide

The correct answer is D because the recommended size of the root partition for a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server is at least 20GB2. Any size, less than 20GB, or more than 10GB and less than 20GB are not sufficient for the SmartEvent server. References: Check Point R80.40 Installation and Upgrade Guide

The Windows Security Event that will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness is Kerberos Ticket Timed Out. This event occurs when a Kerberos ticket expires and is not renewed, which means that the user is no longer active on the network. Identity Awareness does not use this event to map a username to an IP address, as it does not indicate a valid user session. The other events are used by Identity Awareness to map a username to an IP address, as they indicate a successful user authentication or activity on the network.

References: [Kerberos Ticket Expiration and Renewal], [Identity Awareness AD Query]

The SmartCenter that should be connected to for making changes is the active SmartCenter. The active SmartCenter is the one that is currently synchronizing its configuration with the secondary SmartCenter and handling the communication with the gateways . The primary SmartCenter is the one that was initially configured as the main server, but it may become inactive if a failover occurs. The virtual IP of SmartCenter HA is used to access the SmartConsole, not to make changes. References: [Security Management Server High Availability (HA) R81 Administration Guide], [Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation], [How to configure ClusterXL High Availability on Security Management Server]

The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and add users to your Gaia system, assign privileges to users, and edit the home directory of the user. However, it cannot assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server. This is done by the SmartConsole1.

References: 1: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 11.

In R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy567. The Threat Prevention Policy defines how to protect the network from malicious traffic using IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, and Threat Emulation software blades5. The IPS layer in the Threat Prevention Policy allows configuring IPS protections and actions for different network segments5. The other options are not true about the IPS-Blade. References: Check Point IPS Datasheet, Check Point IPS Software Blade, Quantum Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

The correct syntax for adding a host using GAiA management CLI is mgmt add host name <name> ip-address 2. References: Check Point GAiA R81 Command Line Interface Reference Guide

 Anti-Virus is the single Security Blade that can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware. Anti-Virus scans files and email attachments for viruses, worms, trojans, and other types of malware. It also uses ThreatCloud, a collaborative network that delivers real-time dynamic security intelligence, to detect unknown malware based on their behavior3. Anti-Bot is a Security Blade that detects and blocks botnet communications, but it does not scan files or block websites. URL Filtering is a Security Blade that enables administrators to control access to web applications, but it does not scan files or detect malware.

The policy type that is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules is QoS. QoS stands for Quality of Service and is a software blade that allows administrators to prioritize network traffic according to various criteria such as source, destination, service, application, user, etc. QoS can also limit the bandwidth consumption of certain traffic types or guarantee a minimum bandwidth for critical applications. References: [Check Point R81 QoS Administration Guide]

A layer can support different combinations of blades, but the supported blades are Firewall (Network Access Control), Application & URL Filtering, and Content Awareness. These blades provide granular control over network traffic based on applications, users, content, and risk1. Mobile Access is not a supported blade in a layer2.

References: 1: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, page 101. 2: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Administration Guide, page 11.

When a gateway requires user information for authentication, it queries servers for user information in the following order: first the internal user database, then the generic external user profile, and finally LDAP servers in order of priority. The internal user database is a local database that stores user information on the Security Gateway or Security Management Server. The generic external user profile is a predefined profile that allows users to authenticate with any external server that supports RADIUS or TACACS protocols. LDAP servers are external servers that use the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol to store and retrieve user information. The gateway queries LDAP servers according to the priority that is defined in the LDAP Account Unit object properties. 

The type of NAT that is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address is Static NAT. Static NAT maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis3. This means that for each internal host, there is a corresponding external address that represents it3. Therefore, the correct answer is B

The answer is B because Geo policy shared policy is used to create policy for traffic to or from a particular location based on the source or destination country. DLP shared policy is used to prevent data loss by inspecting files and data for sensitive information. Mobile Access software blade is used to provide secure remote access to corporate resources from various devices. HTTPS inspection is used to inspect encrypted web traffic for threats and compliance4References: Check Point R81 Geo Policy Administration Guide, [Check Point R81 Data Loss Prevention Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Mobile Access Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 HTTPS Inspection Administration Guide]

One limitation of using Security Zones in the network is that Security Zones will not work in Manual NAT rules. Manual NAT rules are rules that explicitly define how to translate the source and destination IP addresses and ports of each connection. Manual NAT rules do not support using Security Zones as objects, only network objects or groups. Automatic NAT rules are rules that automatically define how to translate the source and destination IP addresses and ports of each connection based on the network objects or groups properties. Automatic NAT rules support using Security Zones as objects. Security Zones can also work in firewall policy layer and network topology.References: [Security Zones Best Practices], [NAT Methods]

Logs are not automatically forwarded to a new Log Server. SmartConsole must be used to manually configure each gateway to send its logs to the server. After adding a new Log Server and establishing the SIC trust with the SMS, the administrator must use SmartConsole to assign the Log Server to each gateway in the Logs and Masters section of the gateway properties2. The other options are not correct, as gateways can send logs to both SMS and Log Server, Log Servers are not proprietary log archive servers, and gateways will not detect the new Log Server after the next policy install.

The option that is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection is No Screening above Network layer. Stateful Inspection is a firewall technology that inspects packets at all layers of the OSI model, from layer 3 (Network) to layer 7 (Application). Stateful Inspection provides screening above Network layer, such as checking TCP flags, sequence numbers, ports, and application protocols . The other options are advantages of Stateful Inspection, as it provides high performance, good security, and transparency for legitimate traffic.

References: Stateful Inspection Technology, Firewall Administration Guide

The Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent failovers in an Active-Active cluster. The SDF ensures that the same cluster member handles all connections that belong to a certain session. If the SDF is not enabled, different cluster members may handle different connections of the same session, which may cause a failover or a drop12. References: ClusterXL Administration Guide R81, Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet is the correct answer. This is because the Log & Monitor view in SmartConsole allows you to view and analyze logs and events from various sources, such as Security Gateways, Security Management Servers, and SmartEvent Servers. You can use filters to search for specific logs and events based on different criteria, such as source IP, destination IP, action, time, etc. References: [Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide R80.20]

 ThreatWiki is a web-based tool that provides statistics on detected threats, such as attack types, sources, destinations, and severity. It also allows the administrator to search for specific threats and view their details and mitigation methods. The other options are not tools for viewing statistics on detected threats. References: [ThreatWiki], [ThreatWiki - Threat Emulation]

An LDAP server holds one or more Account Units. An Account Unit is a logical representation of an LDAP server in the Check Point database. It defines the connection parameters, authentication methods, and user and group information that are retrieved from the LDAP server. An Account Unit allows the Security Gateway to use the LDAP server for user authentication and identity awareness. The other options are incorrect. A Server Unit is a logical representation of a Check Point server in the Check Point database. An Administrator Unit is a logical representation of an administrator or an administrator group in the Check Point database. An Account Server is not a valid term in Check Point terminology. References: [Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 Resolved Issues]

SmartConsole provides a consolidated solution for everything that is necessary for the security of an organization, such as Security Policy Management and Log Analysis. Security Policy Management is the process of defining and enforcing rules that control the access and protection of network resources. Log Analysis is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on log data that is generated by network devices and applications. SmartConsole is a unified graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage multiple security functions from a single console. The other options are not part of SmartConsole, but rather separate software blades or features that can be integrated with SmartConsole. 

CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine is the tool that allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS. CPUSE is a web-based tool that simplifies the installation of software updates, hotfixes, and upgrade packages on Gaia OS2. The other options are not valid tools for updating Gaia OS and Check Point products.

The components of Check Point Capsule are Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, and Capsule Workspace123. There is no Capsule Enterprise component. Capsule Docs protects business documents everywhere they go. Capsule Cloud protects mobile users outside the enterprise security perimeter. Capsule Workspace creates a secure business environment on mobile devices. References: Check Point Capsule Datasheet, Check Point Capsule Workspace Datasheet, Mobile Secure Workspace with Capsule

 It is Best Practice to have an Explicit CleanUp rule at the end of each policy layer. This rule will log and drop any traffic that does not match any of the preceding rules in the layer1, p. 23. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation

The steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working behind the Internet Security Gateway are:

• Define an accept rule in Security Policy. This rule allows the traffic from your internal networks to pass through the Security Gateway.
• Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP. This option translates the private IP addresses of your internal networks to a public IP address assigned by your ISP router. This way, your internal networks can communicate with the Internet using a valid IP address.
• Publish and install the policy. This step applies the changes you made to the Security Gateway and activates the security and NAT rules.

References: Check Point R81 Quantum Security Gateway Guide

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NAT because it allows the administrator to define the NAT rules in any order and position1. Automatic NAT creates the NAT rules automatically and places them at the top or bottom of the NAT Rule Base2. References: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide, Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide

This answer is correct because these are the software components that are used by the pre-defined Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R81.20 and higher1. These profiles provide zero-maintenance protection from zero-day threats and continuously and autonomously ensure that your protection is up-to-date with the latest cyber threats and prevention technologies2.

The other answers are not correct because they either include software components that are not part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation, or they omit some of the software components that are part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, and Macro Extraction.

• Autonomous Threat Prevention Management - Check Point Software
• Check Point Quantum R81.20 (Titan) Release
• Threat Prevention R81.20 Best Practices - Check Point Software
• Check Point R81

 Core Protections are installed as part of the Threat Prevention Policy. Core Protections are a set of IPS protections that are essential for securing your network against malicious traffic4. The other policies do not include Core Protections.

References: 1: Check Point CLI Reference Card 2: Anti-Spoofing 3: SmartView Tracker 4: Core Protections

 Identity Awareness is a software blade that lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items: network location, the identity of a user, and the identity of a machine. These items are used to identify and authenticate users and machines, and to enforce identity-based policies. Network location refers to the IP address or subnet of the source or destination of the traffic. The identity of a user can be obtained from various sources, such as Active Directory, LDAP, or Captive Portal. The identity of a machine can be verified by using Secure Domain Logon or Identity Agent. 

In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway using the CPLIC command1. This command allows you to install a license from a file or from the User Center1. Therefore, the correct answer is D. True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway. 

 The BEST immediate action to take when you have discovered suspicious activity in your network is to create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic. A suspicious action rule is a special type of rule that is triggered when a predefined condition is met, such as a malicious file download, a ransomware attack, or a data exfiltration attempt13. A suspicious action rule can block the traffic, quarantine the source, or send an alert to the administrator. Creating a policy rule to block the traffic may not be effective if the traffic does not match the rule criteria or if the policy installation is delayed. Waiting until traffic has been identified before making any changes may allow the threat to spread or cause more damage. Contacting ISP to block the traffic may not be feasible or timely, and may also affect legitimate traffic. References: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide, Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation | Udemy

The following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object: Time4. An Access Role Object is a way to define a group of users based on four criteria: Networks, Users, Machines, and Locations5. Networks are IP addresses or network objects that represent the source or destination of the traffic. Users are user accounts or user groups from an identity source such as LDAP or RADIUS. Machines are endpoints that are identified by MAC addresses or certificates. Locations are geographical regions based on IP addresses. References: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide, Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide

The Transport layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for managing the flow of data between two hosts to ensure that the packets are correctly assembled and delivered to the target application. It also provides error detection and correction, flow control, and multiplexing. The Transport layer uses protocols such as TCP and UDP.

References: Check Point Security Engineering Study Guide, p. 10-11

When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, it means that the Security Gateway and the Log Server are installed on different machines. This is a characteristic of a Distributed deployment3. Therefore, the correct answer is A

One of the major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration, which allows multiple administrators to work on the same Security Policy at the same time12. However, only one administrator can edit a rule at a time. If AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time, it will cause a conflict and prevent them from saving their changes12. Therefore, the correct answer is B. AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

 Snapshot is the backup utility that captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives. Snapshot creates an image of the entire system, including operating system files, configuration files, databases, and logs. It can be used to restore the system in case of a failure or corruption. Backup creates a compressed file that contains configuration files and databases, but not operating system files or logs. It can be used to restore configuration settings and policies. Database Revision creates a backup of only the database files that store policies and objects. It can be used to revert to a previous revision of the database. Migrate export creates a compressed file that contains configuration files, databases, and logs, but not operating system files. It can be used to migrate data from one machine to another with different hardware or software versions.References: [Backup and Restore], [Database Revision Control], [Migrate Tools], [Hewlett Packard Enterprise Support Center]

 The answer is B because querying logs now is very fast because the Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results. The Indexing Engine is a component of the Smart-1 appliance that creates indexes for log fields and values, such as source, destination, action, and time. The indexes enable quick and efficient searches of large amounts of log data.References: [Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide], [Check Point R81 Indexing Engine]

 In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed. SmartConsole is a graphical tool that allows the administrator to create, edit, and manage security policies using a web browser. mgmt_cli (API) is a command-line tool that allows the administrator to perform the same tasks using commands and scripts. Both tools can connect to the Security Management Server remotely from any computer that has SmartConsole installed.References: [SmartConsole Overview], [mgmt_cli (API)]

This answer is correct because DES (Data Encryption Standard) is the least secured encryption algorithm among the options given. DES uses a 56-bit key, which is too short and can be easily cracked by brute force attacks1. DES also suffers from other weaknesses, such as weak keys, complementation property, and linear cryptanalysis2.

The other answers are not correct because they are more secured encryption algorithms than DES. 3DES (Triple DES) is an improvement over DES that applies DES three times with different keys, resulting in a 168-bit key3. AES-128 and AES-256 are variants of AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) that use 128-bit and 256-bit keys respectively. AES is considered to be the most secure symmetric encryption algorithm and is widely used for data protection.

• What is DES encryption, and why was it replaced?
• Data Encryption Standard - Wikipedia
• What is 3DES encryption?
• [What is AES encryption and how does it work?]

There are three types of Endpoint Identity Agents: Full, Light, and Terminal. Custom is not a valid type2.

References: 2: Check Point R81 Endpoint Security Administration Guide, page 18.

The scenario where it is a valid option to transfer a license from one hardware device to another is from a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance. This is because both appliances are Check Point products and have the same license type (Central License). You can transfer a license from one hardware device to another if they have the same license type and vendor3. Therefore, the correct answer is A. From a 4400 Appliance to a 2200 Appliance. 

 To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, you should run the command fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled on all cluster members and check that the result of the command returns the value 11. This command shows the current value of the global kernel parameter fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled, which controls whether VMAC mode is enabled or disabled. VMAC mode is a feature that associates a Virtual MAC address with each Virtual IP address of the cluster, which reduces the need for Gratuitous ARP packets and improves failover performance1. The other options are incorrect. Option A is not a valid command. Option C is a command to show the status of cluster interfaces, not VMAC mode2. Option D is a command to show the value of a different global kernel parameter, fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled, which controls whether VMAC mode is enabled for all interfaces or only for non-VLAN interfaces1. References: How to enable ClusterXL Virtual MAC (VMAC) mode, cphaprob

Automatic Hide NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default1. This means that the source IP address and port number are translated to a different IP address and port number. This allows multiple hosts to share a single IP address for outbound connections. References: Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide

This log filter will show only the logs that have the action of “Key Install”, which means that the Security Gateway installed a new encryption key for the VPN tunnel1. It will also show only the logs that have the IP address of 1.1.1.1, which is the remote gateway that has some issues. Finally, it will show only the logs that have the Quick Mode, which is the IKE Phase 2 negotiation that establishes the agreed networks for both gateways2.

The other log filters are not correct because they either include the Main Mode, which is the IKE Phase 1 negotiation that establishes the secure channel between the gateways2, or they do not specify the IP address of the remote gateway.

• Logging and Monitoring R81.20 Administration Guide
• Remote Access VPN R81.20 Administration Guide
• Remote Access VPN R81 Administration Guide

When enabling tracking on a rule, the default option is Log. This option generates a log entry for each connection that matches the rule. The log entry contains information such as the source, destination, service, action, and time of the connection.References: [Logging and Monitoring R81], [Logging and Monitoring]

URL Filtering is a blade that enables administrators to control access to millions of websites by category, users, groups, and machines. URL Filtering can be used to improve organizational security, decrease legal liability, and control data security by preventing users from accessing malicious or inappropriate websites. However, URL Filtering cannot be used to control bandwidth issues, such as limiting the amount of traffic or prioritizing certain applications over others3. For that purpose, other blades such as QoS (Quality of Service) or SecureXL are more suitable. References: Check Point R81 URL Filtering Administration Guide

References: Certificate-based authentication is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method. It uses digital certificates to verify the identity of the VPN client and server, and provides stronger encryption and mutual authentication. Password-based authentication methods are less secure and more vulnerable to brute-force attacks, phishing, and keylogging. MD5 is a hashing algorithm, not an authentication method. Pre-shared secret is a symmetric key that is shared between the VPN peers, but it can be compromised if it is not changed frequently or stored securely12 References: VPN authentication options, Windows VPN technical guide

The Stealth Rule is used to prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway. It is usually placed at the top of the rule base, before any other rule that allows traffic to the Security Gateway1, p. 32. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation

 The correct answer is A because session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using the X-chkp-sid http header option1. The X-chkp-sid header is used to authenticate and authorize API calls1. The other options are not related to session unique identifiers. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide

SmartLog is a unified log viewer that provides fast and easy access to logs from all Check Point components3. It allows the administrator to query for any log field, such as the IP address of the tablet, and filter the results by time, severity, blade, action, and more4. SmartView Tracker is a legacy tool that displays network activity logs from Security Gateways and other Check Point devices. It does not support remote connection to the wireless controller or querying for specific IP addresses. References: SmartLog, SmartLog Queries, [SmartView Tracker]

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that modifies the IP addresses or ports of packets that pass through a security gateway. NAT can be configured in two ways: Automatic or Manual. Automatic NAT means that the NAT rules are generated automatically by the security gateway based on the NAT properties of network objects. Manual NAT means that the NAT rules are defined explicitly by the administrator in the NAT policy. Proxy ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a technique that allows a security gateway to answer ARP requests on behalf of other hosts. Proxy ARP is needed when a host on one network segment tries to communicate with a host on another network segment that has a different IP address than its own. In some scenarios, an administrator will need to manually define Proxy ARP for NAT to work properly. One such scenario is when they configure a Manual Static NAT which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces2. References: Check Point R81 Network Address Translation Administration Guide

In order to install a license, it must first be added to the License and Contract repository. The License and Contract repository is a centralized database that stores all the licenses and contracts for Check Point products. It allows you to manage, activate, and attach licenses to your Check Point products.

References: Check Point Security Management Administration Guide R81, p. 19-20

The three types of UserCheck messages are inform, ask, and block. Inform messages notify users about security events and do not require any user action. Ask messages prompt users to choose whether to allow or block an action. Block messages prevent users from performing an action and display a reason1. References: Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide

The command that is used to monitor cluster members is cphaprob state. This command shows the state of each cluster member (Active, Standby, Down, etc.) and the reason for the state (OK, HA Failure, CCP Failure, etc.). It also shows the state synchronization status (Synchronized or Not Synchronized) and the uptime of each cluster member. The other options are incorrect. Option B is a command to show the status of cluster services, not cluster members. Option C is not a valid command by itself, as it requires an argument such as state, status, list, etc. Option D is not a valid command at all. References: [cphaprob]

 The padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base indicates that another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule1. This is a feature of R80 that allows multiple administrators to work on the same policy simultaneously. The padlock sign prevents other administrators from modifying the same rule until the editing administrator publishes or discards the changes2. The other options are not valid explanations for the padlock sign. References: 156-215.80 : Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA R80) : Part 19, Multi-User Policy Editing

 The pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS are AdminRole and MonitorRole. AdminRole is the role that has full access to all Gaia features and commands. MonitorRole is the role that has read-only access to Gaia features and commands1. The other options are not valid pre-defined Roles in Gaia OS.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS. This is because certificate based authentication provides stronger security and easier management than pre-shared secret authentication. The other options are either incorrect or irrelevant for this scenario. References: [Check Point R80.10 - Part 6 - Certificate Based Authentication]

 Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. They are Admin and Monitor. Admin is the user account that has full administrative privileges and can access both WebUI and CLI. Monitor is the user account that has read-only privileges and can access only WebUI2. The other options are not default user accounts in Gaia.

The correct syntax for adding a host using GAiA management CLI is mgmt add host name <name> ip-address 2. References: Check Point GAiA R81 Command Line Interface Reference Guide

Automatic Hide NAT rules are created by the administrator when they configure NAT for network objects or groups in the object properties. Automatic Hide NAT rules allow multiple private IP addresses to share a single public IP address when accessing external networks. Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default for Automatic Hide NAT rules, which means that the Security Gateway assigns a unique source port number for each connection from the same source IP address. This allows the Security Gateway to keep track of the connections and translate the reply packets correctly. 

 Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication. Captive Portal is a web page that prompts users to enter their credentials. Transparent Kerberos Authentication is a method that automatically authenticates users who have a valid Kerberos ticket from the Active Directory domain controller2. UserCheck is a feature that allows users to interact with the security policy, not a method of authentication. User Directory is a component that integrates with external user databases, not a web page for authentication. Captive Portal alone is not enough to fill in the blank, as it is only one of the methods used by Browser-based Authentication.

A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are three types of Software Containers: Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security1. A Software Blade is a specific security function that can be enabled or disabled on a Software Container. A Software Container is a platform that runs one or more Software Blades. Security Management is a container that manages the security policy and configuration of Security Gateways. Security Gateway is a container that enforces the security policy on network traffic. Endpoint Security is a container that protects endpoints from threats and data loss. References: Check Point Licensing and Contract Operations User Guide

The licensing feature that is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository is Automatic licensing and Verification tool1, p. 8. Automatic licensing is a feature that allows the Security Management Server to automatically attach licenses to Security Gateways. Verification tool is a feature that allows the Security Management Server to verify the validity of licenses and contracts2. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation, Check Point Licensing and Contract Administration Guide R81

 Stateful Inspection and Proxies are two different technologies for implementing firewall security. Stateful Inspection is a technique that inspects packets at the network layer and maintains a state table that tracks the status of each connection. Proxies are applications that act as intermediaries between clients and servers, and inspect packets at the application layer. The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies, because it did not have to process the payload of each packet and could handle more concurrent connections1. References: Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide

The answer is A because changes applied to a User Directory template are reflected immediately for all users who are using that template. A User Directory template defines the settings for connecting to an LDAP server, such as the server name, port, base DN, user filter, and group filter. When a User Directory template is modified, all users who are using that template will inherit the changes without requiring any additional actions3 References: Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide, [Check Point R81 User Directory Templates]