PRMIA 8008 Exam With Confidence Using Practice Dumps

VaR is specified by just two parameters - the holding period, and the confidence level. We speak of, for example, a 10-day VaR at the 95% confidence level. No other parameters are required. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer and the others are incorrect.

Analytical or parametric approaches are not useful at all for liquidity at risk calculations because there are no neat distributions available to parameterize the large number of factors that affect the calculations of liquidity inflows and outflows. Historical simulations, Monte Carlo and scenario analysis (which can complement historical scenarios) are all valid choices

Suppose during a historical event interest rates rose from 2% to 2.25%. This can be understood as a change of either 25 basis points, or a change of 12.5%. When applied to the current portfolio when interest rates are 0.50%, we may model this 'shock' as either a rise to 0.75%, or 0.5625% (ie a rise of 12.5% over existing levels). The former is called an absolute shock, and the latter a relative shock.

I is true as relative shocks can never change the sign of a risk factor. Yet interest rate changes are modeled as absolute changes as relative shocks can get artificially amplified or attenuated if the current level of interest rates is too different from those that existed during the crisis being modeled. Therefore II is true. III and IV are false as volatility is modeled as a relative shock and spreads are modeled as absolute shocks.