FINRA General Securities Representative SIE New Questions

XYZ bonds have a yield higher than the coupon rate, indicating that their market price has decreased due to concerns about the issuer's creditworthiness.

A is correctbecause the high yield suggests elevated credit risk.

Bis incorrect because domestic utility companies are unlikely to face political risk.

Cis irrelevant as the bonds are denominated in U.S. dollars.

Dis incorrect as prepayment risk is associated with callable bonds, not noncallable bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Reverse Split Calculation: A 1-for-2 reverse split reduces the number of shares by half while doubling the price per share.

Pre-Split Holdings: 100 shares at $5.00 = $500.

Post-Split Holdings: 50 shares at $10.00 = $500.

Incorrect Options: The total value remains unchanged; only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

References:

FINRA Corporate Actions Guidance: FINRA Reverse Splits.

The annual interest on a bond is calculated based on thecoupon rateand the bond’s par value.

Coupon rate = 4.0%.

Annual interest = $10,000 (par value) × 4.0% =$400.

A is correctbecause the coupon rate determines the annual interest.

B,C, andDare incorrect because they reflect incorrect calculations. The current yield, YTM, and tax-equivalent yield do not affect the bond’s fixed coupon payments.

SEC Regulation A provides a registration exemption for smaller public offerings but includes a "bad actor" disqualification. If certain key parties, such as the issuer, underwriter, or affiliates, have been involved in securities violations, the exemption is forfeited.

B is correctbecause underwriters are considered essential participants, and their status as bad actors disqualifies the offering.

A,C, andDare incorrect because custodians, transfer agents, and clearing corporations are not included in the "bad actor" provisions of Regulation A.