Which statement is TRUE regarding the onboarding process far new hires?
New employees and contractors should not be on-boarded until the results of applicant screening are approved
it is not necessary to have employees, contractors, and third party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements
All job roles should require employees to sign non-compete agreements
New employees and contactors can opt-out of having to attend security and privacy awareness training if they hold existing certifications
The onboarding process for new hires is a key part of the third-party risk management program, as it ensures that the right people are hired and trained to perform their roles effectively and securely. One of the best practices for onboarding new hires is to conduct applicant screening, which may include background checks, reference checks, verification of credentials, and assessment of skills and competencies. Applicant screening helps to identify and mitigate potential risks such as fraud, theft, corruption, or data breaches that may arise from hiring unqualified, dishonest, or malicious individuals. Therefore, it is important to wait for the results of applicant screening before onboarding new employees and contractors, as this can prevent costly and damaging incidents in the future.
The other statements are false regarding the onboarding process for new hires. It is necessary to have employees, contractors, and third-party users sign confidentiality or non-disclosure agreements, as this protects the company’s sensitive information and intellectual property from unauthorized disclosure or misuse. Non-compete agreements may not be required for all job roles, as they may limit the employee’s ability to work for other companies or in the same industry after leaving the current employer. They may also be subject to legal challenges depending on the jurisdiction and the scope of the agreement. Security and privacy awareness training is essential for all new employees and contractors, regardless of their existing certifications, as it educates them on the company’s policies, procedures, and standards for protecting data and systems from cyber threats. It also helps to foster a culture of security and compliance within the organization. References:
Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?
Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties
Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management
Procedures for incident reporting and notification
Data privacy policies are documents that outline how an organization collects, uses, stores, shares, and protects personal information from its customers, employees, partners, and other stakeholders1. Data privacy policies should address the following key elements2:
Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management are typically not addressed within data privacy policies, as they are more related to the technical and operational aspects of data security and access control. Identity access management (IAM) is a framework of policies, processes, and technologies that enable an organization to manage and verify the identities and access rights of its users and devices3. IAM configuration settings determine how users and devices are authenticated, authorized, and audited when accessing data and resources. IAM configuration settings should be aligned with the data privacy policies and principles, but they are not part of the data privacy policies themselves. IAM configuration settings should be documented and maintained separately from data privacy policies, and should be reviewed and updated regularly to ensure compliance and security. References: 1: What is a Data Privacy Policy? | OneTrust 2: Privacy Policy Checklist: What to Include in Your Privacy Policy 3: What is identity and access management? | IBM : [Identity and Access Management Configuration Settings] : [Why data privacy and third-party risk teams need to work … - OneTrust] : [Privacy Risk Management - ISACA] : [What Every Chief Privacy Officer Should Know About Third-Party Risk …]
Which of the following actions reflects the first step in developing an emergency response plan?
Conduct an assessment that includes an inventory of the types of events that have the greatest potential to trigger an emergency response plan
Consider work-from-home parameters in the emergency response plan
incorporate periodic crisis management team tabletop exercises to test different scenarios
Use the results of continuous monitoring tools to develop the emergency response plan
An emergency response plan (ERP) is a document that outlines the procedures and actions to be taken by an organization in the event of a disruptive incident that threatens its operations, assets, reputation, or stakeholders1. An ERP should be aligned with the organization’s business continuity and disaster recovery plans, and should cover the roles and responsibilities, communication channels, escalation processes, resources, and recovery strategies for different types of emergencies2.
The first step in developing an ERP is to conduct an assessment that includes an inventory of the types of events that have the greatest potential to trigger an ERP3. This assessment should consider the likelihood and impact of various scenarios, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, pandemics, civil unrest, terrorism, or supply chain disruptions, and identify the critical functions, processes, assets, and dependencies that could be affected by these events4. The assessment should also evaluate the existing capabilities and gaps in the organization’s preparedness and response, and prioritize the areas that need improvement or enhancement5. The assessment should be based on a comprehensive risk analysis and a business impact analysis, and should involve input from relevant stakeholders, such as senior management, business units, IT, security, legal, compliance, human resources, and third parties.
The other options are not the first step in developing an ERP, but rather subsequent or complementary steps that should be performed after the initial assessment. Considering work-from-home parameters, incorporating periodic crisis management team tabletop exercises, and using the results of continuous monitoring tools are all important aspects of an ERP, but they are not the starting point for creating one. These steps should be based on the findings and recommendations of the assessment, and should be updated and tested regularly to ensure the effectiveness and relevance of the ERP. References: 1: What is an Emergency Response Plan? | IBM 2: Emergency Response Plan | Ready.gov 3: 8 Steps to Building a Third-Party Incident Response Plan | Prevalent 4: How to create an effective business continuity plan | CIO 5: Emergency Response Planning: 4 Steps to Creating a Plan : Third-Party Risk Management: Final Interagency Guidance : Improving Third-Party Incident Response | Prevalent
Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?
Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring
Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score
Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided
Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach
The frequency of cyclical assessments is one of the key factors that determines the effectiveness and efficiency of a TPRM program. Cyclical assessments are periodic reviews of the vendor’s performance, compliance, and risk posture that are conducted after the initial onboarding assessment. The frequency of cyclical assessments should be aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, and should reflect the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to the organization’s operations. A common approach to determine the frequency of cyclical assessments is to use a vendor risk score, which is a numerical value that represents the vendor’s inherent and residual risk based on various criteria, such as the type, scope, and complexity of the services or products provided, the vendor’s security and privacy controls, the vendor’s compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor’s past performance and incident history, and the vendor’s business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. The vendor risk score can be used to categorize the vendors into different risk tiers, such as high, medium, and low, and assign appropriate frequencies for cyclical assessments, such as annually, biannually, or quarterly. For example, a high-risk vendor may require an annual assessment, while a low-risk vendor may require a biannual or quarterly assessment. The vendor risk score and the frequency of cyclical assessments should be reviewed and updated regularly to account for any changes in the vendor’s risk profile or the organization’s risk appetite.
The other three statements do not best reflect the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments, as they are either too rigid, too vague, or too reactive. Statement A implies that vendor assessments are only necessary during onboarding and can be replaced by continuous monitoring afterwards. However, continuous monitoring alone is not sufficient to ensure the vendor’s compliance and risk management, as it may not capture all the aspects of the vendor’s performance and risk posture, such as contractual obligations, service level agreements, audit results, and remediation actions. Therefore, vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and at regular intervals thereafter, complemented by continuous monitoring. Statement C suggests that vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services or products provided, without considering the other factors that may affect the vendor’s risk level and criticality, such as the vendor’s security and privacy controls, the vendor’s compliance with relevant regulations and standards, the vendor’s past performance and incident history, and the vendor’s business continuity and disaster recovery capabilities. Therefore, statement C is too vague and does not provide a clear and consistent basis for determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. Statement D indicates that vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach, implying that the frequency of cyclical assessments is only adjusted in response to a negative event. However, this approach is too reactive and may not prevent or mitigate the impact of the data breach, as the vendor’s risk level and criticality may have already increased before the data breach occurred. Therefore, statement D does not reflect a proactive and risk-based approach to determining the frequency of cyclical assessments. References:
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