A corporate bond was trading with 2%probability of default and 60% loss given default. Due to the credit crisis the probability of default increased to 10% and the loss given default increased to 100%. Assuming that the risk premium remained the same how did the credit spread change?
The exercise for an American type option prior to expiration day is virtually certain in the following case:
A corporate bond gives a yield of 6%. A same maturity government bond yields 2%. The probability of the corporate bond defaulting is 2.5%. In case of default, investors expect to lose 60% of their investment. The risk premium in the credit spread is:
Which one of the four following statements about the Risk Adjusted Return on Capital (RAROC) is correct?
RAROC is the ratio of: