Free and Premium PTCB PTCE Dumps Questions Answers

Multiple-dose vials (MDVs)containpreservativesto inhibit microbial growth. These vials are designed formultiple withdrawalsover time, increasing the risk of contamination. Preservatives, such asbenzyl alcohol or phenol, help prevent bacterial or fungal contamination after repeated needle insertions.

A. stability and compatibility→ Incorrect. Preservatives do not inhibit drug stability; they prevent microbial contamination.

B. sorption and leaching→ Incorrect. Sorption (adsorption/absorption of drugs onto container surfaces) and leaching (release of chemicals from containers) are unrelated to preservatives.

D. synergistic reactions→ Incorrect. Synergistic reactions refer to drug interactions, not contamination prevention.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Guidelines on Multiple-Dose Vials

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Linaclotide (brand name: Linzess)must be dispensed in its original containerbecause:

It is highly moisture-sensitive, and removing it from its original container may lead to degradation.

The manufacturer provides a desiccantin the original packaging toprotect against humidity.

A. Furosemide❌→Does not require original container.

While furosemide tablets should be stored properly,they do not require dispensing in the original container.

C. Valsartan❌→Does not require original container.

Valsartan tablets arestable outside the original container.

D. Sertraline❌→Does not require original container.

Sertraline (Zoloft)can be repackagedwithout stability issues.

FDA Linzess Storage Guidelines– States that Linzessmust be stored in its original container with desiccant.

USP <797> & <800> Guidelines– Cover proper storage and handling of moisture-sensitive drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Includes special drug storage requirements.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Thevaricella (chickenpox) vaccine(brand nameVarivax) is alive attenuated virus vaccinethat requiresfreezingto maintain stability.

TheCDC and manufacturers (Merck) require that Varicella vaccine be stored in a freezer at:

Temperature range: -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)

Acceptable range:-20°C to -10°C (-4°F to 14°F)

Do NOT store in the refrigerator–Refrigeration deactivates the live virus, making the vaccine ineffective.

Store in a stand-alone freezer(not in a refrigerator/freezer combo) to ensure temperature stability.

B. In the refrigerator (2°C to 8°C/36°F to 46°F)❌→Incorrect.

Refrigerationcompromises the vaccine’s potency, leading to inactivation of the live virus.

C. At room temperature (15°C to 30°C/59°F to 86°F)❌→Incorrect.

Room temperature storage causes rapid degradation of the live virus, rendering the vaccine ineffective.

D. In a warmer (30°C to 40°C/86°F to 104°F)❌→Incorrect & Unsafe.

Thisdestroysthe vaccine and makes it completely ineffective.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States that varicella vaccinesmust be stored in the freezer at -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F).

Manufacturer (Merck) Guidelines for Varivax– Specifies strict freezer storage requirements.

USP <797> & USP <800> Guidelines– Discuss vaccine stability and proper storage conditions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers vaccine storage and handling protocols.

Proper Long-Term Storage Conditions for Varicella VaccineWhy Not the Other Options?Key References:

Root-Cause Analysis (RCA)is asystematic processused inhealthcare and pharmacy settingstoidentify the underlying factors that contributed to an error or safety event. RCA helps pharmacy staff determinewhy a problem occurredand implement corrective actions toprevent future occurrences.

Identify the problem or event.

Gather and analyze data.

Determine the root cause(s).

Develop and implement corrective actions.

Monitor for improvement and prevention of recurrence.

A. Determine which medication should be dispensed→ Incorrect; RCA is focused onerror investigation, not routine dispensing decisions.

B. Decipher prescriber handwriting during order entry→ Incorrect; this is not the purpose of RCA, though poor handwriting may be identified as a contributing factor in an error.

C. Increase pharmacy revenue and inventory turnover→ Incorrect; RCA is aboutpatient safety and error prevention, not financial performance.

Steps in Root-Cause Analysis (RCA):Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) RCA Guidelines

FDA Medication Error Prevention Strategies

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Quality Assurance & Medication Safety)

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)areFDA-required programsto ensure that thebenefits of certain medications outweigh their risks. REMS programsrestrict prescribing, dispensing, and monitoringdue to the potential for serious side effects or misuse.

Suboxoneis used foropioid dependenceand containsbuprenorphine, apartial opioid agonist, which can causeaddiction, misuse, and respiratory depressionif used improperly.

REMS Requirements for Suboxone:

Prescriber Certification:Only specially certified providers can prescribe Suboxone.

Patient Education:Patients must be informed about the risks of misuse, overdose, and dependence.

Limited Dispensing:Pharmacists must ensure prescriptions meet REMS criteria before dispensing.

A. Xarelto (Rivaroxaban).→ Incorrect. While Xarelto is an anticoagulant, it isnot under REMS.

C. Warfarin.→ Incorrect. Warfarin requires monitoring butdoes not have a REMS program.

D. Haloperidol.→ Incorrect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, but itdoes not have a REMS program.

FDA REMS Program List

Suboxone REMS Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – REMS and Medication Safety.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – REMS Regulations.

Why Is Suboxone (Buprenorphine/Naloxone) Under REMS?Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Linagliptin is thegeneric name for Tradjenta, a medication used to treattype 2 diabetes mellitus.

Linagliptin is a DPP-4 inhibitor (Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4 Inhibitor).

Works byincreasing incretin levels, which boost insulin secretion and reduce glucagon levels.

Used tolower blood glucose levelsin patients with type 2 diabetes.

(A) Forteo❌Incorrect – Forteo (teriparatide) is for osteoporosis.

(B) Januvia❌Incorrect – Januvia (sitagliptin) is another DPP-4 inhibitor but not the same as Tradjenta.

(C) Tradjenta✅Correct – The brand name for linagliptin.

(D) Xarelto❌Incorrect – Xarelto (rivaroxaban) is an anticoagulant.

Tradjenta Prescribing Information

American Diabetes Association (ADA) – Pharmacologic Approaches to Diabetes

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Brand & Generic Name Drug Recognition

Drug Classification & Mechanism:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

According to theCDC Hand Hygiene Guidelines,alcohol-based hand sanitizershould be used:

Before and after direct patient contact(if hands are not visibly dirty).

Before and after wearing gloves(if no contamination is visible).

Before handling medication or sterile supplies.

A. Are about to touch a contaminated surface❌→Incorrect

Hand sanitizer should not be used before touching a contaminated surface.Instead, gloves should be worn, and hand hygiene should be performedaftertouching a contaminated surface.

B. Have just performed an aseptic task❌→Incorrect

Before aseptic tasks (e.g., preparing IV medications), soap and water or hand sanitizer is used.Afterward, contamination risk determines if sanitization is needed.

C. Are about to remove their gloves❌→Incorrect

Gloves do not completely prevent contamination; hand hygiene should be performedafterremoving gloves, not before.

CDC Guidelines for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings– Recommends hand sanitizer use after patient contact.

USP <797> Sterile Compounding Guidelines– Reinforces aseptic hand hygiene practices.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers infection control and proper use of hand hygiene techniques.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

PerUSP standards, a drug with an expiration date ofMarch 2025is consideredvalid until the last day of the month, which isMarch 31, 2025. This applies unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.

If a drug is labeledMM/YYYY, itremains valid until the last day of that month.

If a drug is labeled with aspecific day (MM/DD/YYYY), itexpires at the end of that day.

A. February 28, 2025→ Incorrect; the expiration is at the end ofMarch, not February.

B. March 1, 2025→ Incorrect; the drug is stillusable until March 31.

D. March 1, 2026→ Incorrect; the drugexpires in March 2025, not 2026.

Expiration Date Rules:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding – Expiration and Beyond-Use Dating (BUD) Guidelines

FDA Drug Expiration Date Regulations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Storage & Stability)

Aricept (Donepezil) is a cholinesterase inhibitorused for treatingmild, moderate, or severe Alzheimer's disease dementia.

Itworks by increasing acetylcholine levels in the brain, improving memory and cognitive function.

FDA-approved for all stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

B. Azilect❌→Used for Parkinson’s disease, not Alzheimer's.

Azilect (Rasagiline) is a monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitorthat helps manage Parkinson’s symptoms but is not indicated for dementia.

C. Ambien❌→Used for insomnia, not Alzheimer's dementia.

Ambien (Zolpidem) is a sedative-hypnotic for sleep disordersand does not treat cognitive decline.

D. Atacand❌→Used for hypertension, not dementia.

Atacand (Candesartan) is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure.

FDA Approved Uses for Donepezil (Aricept)– Confirms its indication for all stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

Alzheimer’s Association Treatment Guidelines– Listscholinesterase inhibitors as first-line therapy for dementia.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers pharmacologic treatments for cognitive disorders.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Risperdal Consta (risperidone long-acting injection) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is supplied as a powder that must be reconstituted with a diluent before administration as an intramuscular (IM) injection.

According to the manufacturer’s storage guidelines:

Refrigeration Requirement:Risperdal Consta should be stored in a refrigerator (36°F to 46°F or 2°C to 8°C) to maintain stability.

Room Temperature Stability:If removed from refrigeration, Risperdal Consta can remain stable at room temperature (≤77°F or 25°C)for up to 14 days. After this period, the product should not be used if it has not been administered.

This stability information is critical for pharmacy technicians handling the medication, as it ensures proper storage and prevents medication degradation, which can affect efficacy and safety.

Risperdal Consta (Janssen Pharmaceuticals) Prescribing Information– Official manufacturer guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Storage and Stability– Covers best practices for proper drug storage and handling.

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Standards– Guidelines on temperature control for pharmaceutical products.

Pharmacy Technician References:This information is essential for pharmacy technicians preparing Risperdal Consta for dispensing or administration, ensuring compliance with manufacturer and regulatory guidelines.

Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medications pose asignificant risk of medication errors. To reduce this risk, pharmacies should:

Use both brand and generic nameson labels to clarify drug identity.

Example:"Celexa (Citalopram)" vs. "Celebrex (Celecoxib)."

B. Place the drug next to another look-alike/sound-alike drug on the shelf if they are alphabetical.❌→Incorrect

LASA drugs shouldnotbe stored next to each other.

Example:Hydroxyzine and Hydralazine should be stored separatelyto avoid mix-ups.

C. Review the first five digits of the NDC to confirm the correct product.❌→Incorrect

The first five digits (manufacturer code) only identify the manufacturer, not the specific drug.

Instead, checking theentire NDC (all 10-11 digits) is necessary.

D. Take hazardous drug precautions.❌→Incorrect

LASA errors are a labeling issue, not a hazardous drug issue.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) LASA Guidelines– Recommends usingboth brand and generic names on labels.

FDA & Joint Commission LASA Drug Safety Recommendations– Emphasizes labeling improvements for LASA drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers medication safety and error prevention strategies.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

A vaccine administration error occurs when a vaccine is given in a way that deviates from standard guidelines established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the vaccine manufacturer’s recommendations. Some administration errors must be reported voluntarily to theVaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)to help improve vaccine safety and prevent future errors.

(A) Fluzone was administered subcutaneously.✅(Incorrect Route – Error that Should Be Reported)

Fluzone is aninactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)that should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Subcutaneous (SQ) administration isnot recommendedand may reduce vaccine efficacy.

According to theCDC and the Immunization Action Coalition (IAC), administering an inactivated influenza vaccine subcutaneously is a vaccine administration error and should be reported.

(B) Boostrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Boostrix is aTdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, and Acellular Pertussis) vaccineindicated for booster immunization.

It iscorrectly administered intramuscularly (IM)in thedeltoid muscle.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this does not qualify as a vaccine administration error.

(C) Varivax was administered subcutaneously.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Varivax is alive-attenuated varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.

It iscorrectly administered subcutaneously (SQ), typically in the upper arm or thigh.

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

(D) Shingrix was administered intramuscularly.❌(Correct Route – No Error)

Shingrix is arecombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)used for shingles prevention.

It should be administeredintramuscularly (IM).

Since the correct administration route was followed, this is not a vaccine administration error.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)and theCDCrecommend reportingvaccine administration errorsto VAERS, especially if the error could affect the vaccine’s efficacy or patient safety.

Administration of Fluzonevia the incorrect route (subcutaneously instead of intramuscularly)could alter immune response and should be reported.

If a vaccine is given via the incorrect route, the CDC provides guidance on whether the dose needs to be repeated. For inactivated influenza vaccines given subcutaneously, the CDC states that the dose doesnot need to be repeated, but the error should still be documented and reported.

CDC General Best Practices for

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS):

Immunization Action Coalition (IAC) - Vaccine Administration Guidelines:

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) - Vaccine Safety Recommendations:

Analysis of Each Answer Choice:Reporting Vaccine Administration Errors:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Cefdinir is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections, including otitis media (middle ear infection) in children. It is available in both capsule and suspension forms. However, cefdinir suspension is supplied in different concentrations, typically125 mg/5 mLand250 mg/5 mL.

The prescription provided specifies"Cefdinir suspension 5 mL PO q12h x 10 days", but it does not mention the concentration (strength) of the suspension. Without this crucial information, the pharmacy cannot accurately determine the total dosage the patient will receive. Different strengths would result in significantly different amounts of cefdinir per dose.

For example:

If the prescriber intended125 mg/5 mL, then the patient would receive125 mg per dose (250 mg daily).

If the prescriber intended250 mg/5 mL, then the patient would receive250 mg per dose (500 mg daily).

This discrepancy could lead tounderdosing or overdosing, making it essential for the pharmacy to contact the prescriber to confirm the correct concentration before dispensing.

A. Cefdinir is not available as a suspension.→ Incorrect. Cefdinir is available inoral suspensionform, typically in 125 mg/5 mL and 250 mg/5 mL concentrations.

C. Cefdinir suspension is not indicated for otitis media.→ Incorrect. Cefdinir is FDA-approved for the treatment of otitis media in pediatric patients.

D. Cefdinir suspension was prescribed for a child old enough to swallow capsules.→ Incorrect. While some 8-year-old children may be able to swallow capsules, many pediatric patients prefer liquid formulations, and prescribers often choose suspensions for better compliance.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Entry and Fill Process(Ensuring accuracy of prescriptions, including strength and formulation).

FDA Drug Label for Cefdinir– Indicates available strengths and dosing requirements.

Lexicomp Drug Information for Cefdinir– Lists the recommended pediatric dosages and available suspension concentrations.

Pharmacology Textbooks (e.g., "Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice")– Reinforce the importance of verifying missing prescription details before dispensing.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Incompatibility in a nonsterile compound can be identified through various physical, chemical, and therapeutic changes.An unexpected change in odoris a key indicator of chemical instability, contamination, or degradation of a compounded preparation. Some ingredients may break down into volatile compounds, leading to noticeable odor changes.

A. A clear solution→ Incorrect; clarity alone does not indicate incompatibility.Some solutions may be clear but still chemically unstable.

B. The use of a pH buffer system→ Incorrect; buffer systems are used to maintain pH stability and prevent incompatibility rather than indicate it.

D. Suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container→ Incorrect; suspensions naturally settle and require shaking before use.This is not necessarily a sign of incompatibility.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)is used to treatpernicious anemia, a condition caused byVitamin B12 deficiencydue to the body’s inability to absorb it properly.

Pernicious anemiais an autoimmune disorder where the stomach does not produceintrinsic factor, a protein needed for Vitamin B12 absorption.

Symptoms includefatigue, weakness, neurological issues (numbness, tingling), and megaloblastic anemia.

Cyanocobalamin is given viaIM injection or high-dose oral supplementation.

(A) Pernicious anemia✅Correct – Cyanocobalamin is the primary treatment.

(B) Alcohol withdrawal❌Incorrect – Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is used for alcohol withdrawal, not cyanocobalamin.

(C) Hypothyroidism❌Incorrect – Treated withlevothyroxine (Synthroid), not Vitamin B12.

(D) Narrow-angle glaucoma❌Incorrect – Treated withtimolol, acetazolamide, or surgery, not cyanocobalamin.

Cyanocobalamin Prescribing Information (NIH):

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Disease States & Medications

Key Facts About Cyanocobalamin & Pernicious Anemia:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)maintains a list oferror-prone abbreviationsthat shouldnot be usedin medication orders to prevent misinterpretation and medication errors.

Analysis of the Answer Choices:Abbreviation

Meaning

ISMP Recommendation

U

Units

❌Do NOT use→ Can be mistaken for "0" or "4" (e.g., 10U could be misread as 100).Use"unit"instead.

AD

Right ear

❌Do NOT use→ Can be confused with "OD" (right eye).Use"right ear"instead.

AU

Both ears

❌Do NOT use→ Can be confused with "OU" (both eyes).Use"both ears"instead.

gtt

Drop

✅Accepted→ Common and not considered error-prone.

Since"gtt" for drop is not on ISMP's "Do Not Use" list, it is the correct answer.

ISMP List of Error-Prone Abbreviations– Confirms that "U," "AD," and "AU" should not be used in prescriptions.

Joint Commission "Do Not Use" List– Prohibits "U" and similar abbreviations to prevent dosing errors.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers error prevention strategies, including abbreviation safety.

Key References:

ARisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)program is required by theFDAfor certain medications that have serious safety concerns, ensuring their risks do not outweigh their benefits.Mycophenolateis subject to a REMS program due to its severe teratogenic effects.

(A) Sertraline❌Not Subject to REMS

Sertraline (Zoloft) is aSelective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)used to treat depression and anxiety.

While SSRIs can carry arisk of birth defects (such as persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns - PPHN),sertraline is not included in the REMS program.

(B) Ondansetron❌Not Subject to REMS

Ondansetron (Zofran) is anantiemeticused to prevent nausea and vomiting.

While some studies suggest a possible increased risk of congenital defects, it isnot part of a REMS program.

(C) Montelukast❌Not Subject to REMS

Montelukast (Singulair) is aleukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)used forasthma and allergies.

It has aBoxed Warningfor mental health side effects butis not subject to a REMS program for pregnancy risks.

(D) Mycophenolate✅Correct – Subject to REMS

Mycophenolate (CellCept, Myfortic)is animmunosuppressantused to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients.

It carries ahigh risk of birth defects and miscarriage, making pregnancy preventionmandatorywhile taking the medication.

TheMycophenolate REMS Programrequires:

Mandatory counselingon pregnancy risks

Negative pregnancy testsbefore starting therapy

Use of effective contraceptionbefore, during, and after treatment

FDA REMS Program for

FDA REMS Program Overview:

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety & Risk Management

Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Amlodipine(10 mg) anddiltiazem(30 mg) are bothcalcium channel blockers (CCBs)used to treat hypertension and angina.

When a patient is prescribed two medications from the same therapeutic class, the pharmacy's prescription processing system may flag this as"therapeutic duplication."

This alert is meant toprevent potential adverse effectssuch as excessive lowering of blood pressure or heart rate.

A. Prior authorization required→ Not applicable unless the insurance requires special approval before covering the drug.

C. NDC not covered→ Would appear if the specific drug product (based on its National Drug Code) is not covered by insurance, but this scenario relates to duplication, not coverage.

D. Refill too soon→ This applies to refilling a medication before the allowed time frame, but the scenario describes a new prescription.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Drug Interactions and Therapeutic Duplication

Lexicomp and Micromedex Drug Databases– Reference sources for drug classifications.

ISMP Guidelines on Preventing Therapeutic Duplication Errors

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?Pharmacy Technician References:

Outdated (expired) medicationsmust not be dispensedand should bequarantinedin a separate area to prevent accidental use.

Remove outdated products from active stock immediately.

Label and store them separatelyuntil proper disposal.

Follow DEA, FDA, and state board guidelines for disposal.

Some medications (e.g., controlled substances) require special disposal procedures.

(A) Shipped to the DEA for disposal❌Incorrect – Only controlled substances require DEA disposal (viaReverse Distributor).

(B) Kept on the shelf to be dispensed first❌Incorrect – Expired medications should NEVER be dispensed.

(C) Isolated from active dispensing stock✅Correct – Medications must be separated from usable stock to prevent dispensing errors.

(D) Reported to the ISMP for tracking❌Incorrect – ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) monitors medication errors, not expiration management.

FDA Drug Disposal Guidelines:

DEA Controlled Substance Disposal Regulations:

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Inventory Management & Drug Disposal

Pharmacy Technician Guidelines for Handling Expired Medications:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Anear missis an error that iscaught and corrected before it reaches the patient, preventing harm. In this case, the pharmacistidentified that ampicillin was incorrectly entered as amoxicillinandcorrected the error before dispensing, meaning the patient never received the wrong medication.

B. Dispensing error→ Incorrect; adispensing erroroccursonly if the incorrect drug is given to the patient. Since the error was caught before dispensing, it is classified as anear miss.

C. Adverse event→ Incorrect; anadverse eventis aharmful effectexperienced by the patient, which did not happen here.

D. Unauthorized drug→ Incorrect; anunauthorized drugrefers to a drugdispensed without a valid prescription, which is not the case here.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) Medication Safety Guidelines

FDA Medication Error Reporting and Prevention Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Quality Assurance & Medication Safety – Error Prevention)