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Oracle Database Administration II Questions and Answers

Question 1

Choose the best answer. Which operating system group is NOT needed to perform an Oracle Database installation?

Options:

A.

OSASM

B.

OSRACDBA

C.

OSKMDBA

D.

OSDBA

E)OSOPER

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Question 2

Choose two. Some archived log backups have been accidentally deleted from storage. Which two commands should be used to update the status of backups in the recovery catalog to display only the missing backups?

Options:

A.

RESYNC CATALOG

B.

CROSSCHECK BACKUP OF ARCHIVELOG ALL

C.

LIST ARCHIVELOG ALL

D.

LIST EXPIRED

E.

LIST ARCHIVELOG

F.

REPORT OBSOLETE

Question 3

Choose three. Which three are true about the tools for diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations?

Options:

A.

RMAN can always repair corrupt blocks.

B.

Flashback commands help with repairing physical errors.

C.

The ADR can store metadata in an Oracle Database repository.

D.

The Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) has a separate home directory for each instance of each Oracle product that is installed and uses it.

E.

The ADR command-line utility (ADRCI) can package incident information to send to Oracle Support.

F.

The Data Recovery Advisor uses the ADR.

Question 4

Choose two. A database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode. A full RMAN backup exists but no control file backup to trace has been taken. A media failure has occurred. In which two scenarios is incomplete recovery required?

Options:

A.

after losing all members of the CURRENT online redo log group

B.

after losing all copies of the control file

C.

after losing an UNDO tablespace that is in use

D.

after losing all members of an INACTIVE online redo log group

E.

after losing a SYSAUX tablespace data file

Question 5

Choose two. Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and you plan to use Flashback Database. Which two features or parameters manage space availability in the fast recovery area?

Options:

A.

the backup retention policy

B.

the backup optimization policy

C.

the DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_n parameter setting

D.

the archived log deletion policy

E.

the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter setting

F.

using guaranteed UNDO retention

Question 6

Which three are true about thresholds, metrics, and server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

All metrics are instance related.

B.

Cleared stateful alerts are displayed by querying DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.

C.

A space usage management alert is automatically cleared after the underlying problem is resolved

D.

They are generated by SMON when a tablespace is 97% full.

E.

Metrics are statistical counts for a specific unit.

F.

STATISTICS_LEVEL must be set to ALL to generate alerts.

Question 7

Choose two. Which two are true about a Recovery Manager (RMAN) duplication without a TARGET connection?

Options:

A.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the recovery catalog and the TARGET database is closed.

B.

RMAN disk-based backups of the database to be duplicated can be used by the auxiliary instance.

C.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is always required when no connection exists to the TARGET instance.

D.

The UNDO TABLESPACE clause is never required.

E.

RMAN "pushes" the backups of the database to be duplicated over the network to the auxiliary instance.

Question 8

Choose three. Which three capabilities require the use of the RMAN recovery catalog?

Options:

A.

using RMAN stored scripts

B.

creating encrypted backups

C.

creating customized reports about a single database's backups

D.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's data files and tablespaces at times in the past

E.

using the KEEP FOREVER clause with the BACKUP command

F.

using the REPORT SCHEMA command to list a database's current data files and tablespaces

Question 9

In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20. Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement?

Options:

A.

The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED

B.

Settingthetargettablespacetoread-only

C.

The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED

D.

Setting the target tablespace offline

E.

The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED Correct

Question 10

Application PDBs, SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2, must be created and they must access common tables of the SALES APP application. Examine these steps:

Install the SALES_APP application, induding the common tables, in the application root.

Install the SALES_APP application in the application root and the common tables in both the CDB root and the application root.

Create an application seed.

Install the SALES_APP application in the application seed.

Create the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs.

Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application root.

Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application seed.

Sync the application seed with the application root. Which are the minimum required steps in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

1,3,5,7

B.

2,5,6

C.

1,5,6

D.

3,4,1.6,8

E.

1,3,5,6,7

Question 11

Choose three. Which three are true about configuring CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP by using RMAN?

Options:

A.

The control file is backed up whenever a new tablespace is created.

B.

The server parameter file (SPFILE) is automatically backed up each time the control file is backed up.

C.

The control file is backed up whenever a new table is created.

D.

The control file is backed up whenever an RMAN backup is successfully recorded in the catalog.

E.

It requires the use of fast recovery area (FRA).

F.

The control file is backed up automatically each time the SPFILE is backed up manually.

Question 12

Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If the password file location changes, then the new location is used automatically by the Oracle Server.

B.

Schema Only accounts can be granted administrator privileges.

C.

All the Oracle-supplied accounts are Schema Only accounts.

D.

Privilege Analysisisincluded in Oracle Enterprise Edition and no longer requires Database Vault. E) Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued indirectly by an audited user.

E.

Unified Auditing can be configured to audit only events that are issued directly by an audited user.

Question 13

Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

Options:

A.

All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

B.

The AWR data is stored in memory and in t he database.

C.

The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database

D.

AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.

E.

AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Question 14

choose two Examine these RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT TARGET "sbu@prod AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> CONNECT AUXILIARY "sbu@dup_db AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE PASSWORD FILE SECTION SIZE 400M; Which two statements are true about the DUPLICATE command?

Options:

A.

It succeeds.

B.

It fails because no parallel channels are allocated for the auxiliary database.

C.

It fails because connection to the AUXILIARY instance must be as SYSDBA.

D.

Itsucceeds only if the target database is greater than 400M.

E.

No catalogued backup of the TARGET is used to duplicate the database.

Question 15

You must transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another. The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write. The source and destination platforms have different endian formats.

Examine this list of actions:

1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source system.

2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP.

3. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data fies to the destination platform format using RMAN on the source system.

4. Copy the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination system.

5. Copy the Data Pump dump set to the destination system.

6. Convert the UNIVERSITY tablespace data files to the destination platform format using RMAN on the destination system.

7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP.

8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system.

Which is the minimum number of actions required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?

Options:

A.

1,2,4,5,7,8

B.

1,2,4,6,7,8

C.

1,2,3,4,5,7,8

D.

1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8

E.

2,4,5,6,7

Question 16

Choose the best answer. On the 10th of August, you implement an incremental database backup strategy and configure a recovery window of five days. Level 0 backups are taken on the 10th, 17th, and 24th of August. Differential level 1 incremental backups are taken daily between the level 0 backups. Today is the 26th of August. Which backups will be obsolete?

Options:

A.

all backups prior to 10th of August

B.

all backups prior to 22nd of August

C.

all backups prior to 20th of August

D.

all backups prior to 24th of August

E.

all backups prior to 17th of August

Question 17

Which statement describes the significance of the CHANGE FAILURE command in RMAN? (Choose all that apply.)

Options:

A.

It is used to change failure priority only for HIGH or LOW priorities.

B.

It is used to execute the advised repair script.

C.

It is used to change failure priority only for the CRITICAL priority.

D.

It is used to explicitly close the open failures.

E.

It is used to inform the database about the repair after the repair script executes.

Question 18

Choose the best answer. How do you configure a CDB for local undo mode?

Options:

A.

Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, drop the UNDO tablespace. Execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON in each PDB, and then restart the CDB instance.

B.

Open the CDB instance in upgrade mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and then restart the CDB instance.

C.

Open the CDB instance in upgrade mode. In each PDB, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, create an UNDO tablespace, and then restart the CDB instance.

D.

Open the CDB instance in restricted mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON. create an UNDO tablespace in each PDB, and then restart the CDB instance.

E.

Open the CDB in read-only mode. In CDB$ROOT, execute ALTER DATABASE LOCAL UNDO ON, and then change the CDB to read/write mode.

Question 19

Choose three. Which three are true about SGA memory management in a multitenant database?

Options:

A.

SGA_MIN_SIZE cannot be set for a PDB.

B.

Setting SHARED_POOL_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Shared Pool memory for that PDB.

C.

Setting SGA_TARGET for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of SGA memory for that PDB.

D.

The SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting for a PDB can be up to 80% of the SHARED_POOL_SIZE setting of the root container.

E.

Setting DB_CACHE_SIZE for a PDB guarantees a minimum amount of Database Buffer Cache memory for that PDB.

F.

The SGA_TARGET setting for a PDB cannot exceed 50% of the SGA_TARGET value of the root container.

Question 20

What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE" statement?

Options:

A.

It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.

B.

ItwillcreateaCDBwithrootopenedandseedreadonly.

C.

It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.

D.

It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.

E.

ItwillcreateaCDBwithrootopenedandseedmounted.

Question 21

Which three are located by using environment variables?

Options:

A.

the Optimal Flexible Architecture (OFA) compliant path to store Oracle software and configuration files.

B.

the location of Oracle Net Services configuration files

C.

the list of a disk group names to be mounted by an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance at startup

D.

default directories for temporary files used by temporary tablespaces

E.

the temporary disk space used by Oracle Installer during installation

F.

the maximum number of database files that can be opened by a database instance

Question 22

Which two arc true about Optimizer Statistics ?

Options:

A.

They can be gathered by the DBMS_STATE package.

B.

They are ignored by Optimizer if they are state.

C.

They are gathered by the SQL Tuning Advisor.

D.

By default, they are automatically gathered by a maintenance job.

E.

They provide real-time data about schema objects.

Question 23

Which three are true about RMAN persistent configuration settings, administration, and their effects? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A target database’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always stored in the target’s control file

B.

Backup older than the recovery window retention policy are always deleted automatically if the backup location has insufficient space.

C.

Backups written to the fast recovery area (FRA) that are oboslete based on the redundancy retention policy can be deleted automatically to free space.

D.

The RMAN SHOW ALL command displays only settings with nondefault values.

E.

A target database’s persistent RMAN configuration settings are always synchronized automatically with the RMAN catalog.

F.

The V$RMAN_CONFIGURATION view displays only settings with valuesthat have been modified. G)A DBA must specify either a redundancy retention policy or a recovery window retention policy.

Question 24

Which two are true about instance recovery? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is not possible if an archived log is missing.

B.

It is performed automatically after the database is opened; however, blocks requiring recovery are not available until they are recovered.

C.

Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a lower value reduces instance recovery time by causing dirty buffers to be written to disk more frequently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.

D.

It is performed by the Recovery Writer (RVWR) background process.

E.

Setting FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET to a higher value reduces instance recovery time by causing The log writer to write more frquently, thereby reducing the number of I/Os needed during instance recovery.

F.

It is performed automatically while the database remains in MOUNT state. Then the database is opened.

Question 25

Which three are true about performing an Oracle Database install on Linux? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The runfixup.sh script can install missing RPMs.

B.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM must be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

C.

It allows you to select the languages supported by the Oracle database server.

D.

It can be done before installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server

E.

The Oracle Preinstallation RPM can be used to configure the Oracle database installation owner, the Oracle Inventory group, and an Oracle administrative privileges group

F.

It can be done after installing Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server.

G.

The Oracle database administrator must be granted access to the root operating system account to run root privileged scripts.

Question 26

Choose three. Which three are true about backing up the control file?

Options:

A.

It cannot be backed up manually as a binary copy.

B.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file re¬creation when a database backup occurs.

C.

It can be backed up manually as a binary copy.

D.

It can get backed up automatically as a binary copy.

E.

It gets backed up automatically by RMAN when the BACKUP SPFILE command is used.

F.

It can be backed up manually as a trace file containing SQL statements for control file recreation.

Question 27

Which three are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) and Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) in an Oracle multitenant environment?

Options:

A.

AWR snapshots can be created in CDB$ROOT.

B.

ADDM can run in a nonroot container.

C.

AWR reports can be generated while connected to any container.

D.

All AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.

E.

AWR snapshots can be created in a PDB.

F.

No AWR data is stored in the CDB$ROOT SYSAUX tablespace.

Question 28

Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager to write backups to tape when there are only two tape drives? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SBT tape compression can be used even if no RMAN compression is configured.

B.

Any backup set written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup pieces.

C.

Any backup written to the SBT device in this configuration can contain a maximum of two backup sets.

D.

SBT tape compression and RMAN backup compression should be used in parallel.

E.

The SBT device should be configured to use PARALLELISM 2 to allow both tape drive to be used simultaneously.

Question 29

Choose three. Which three are true about patchsets?

Options:

A.

They are installed via OPatch or OPatchAuto.

B.

A base release is not needed to install patchsets.

C.

They can be applied in a rolling fashion for Clusterware and the databases.

D.

Installing a patchset is considered an "upgrade."

E.

They can introduce new features.

F.

They are only released quarterly.

Question 30

Choose two. Which two are true about various Oracle security and auditing capabilities?

Options:

A.

Application-common Transparent Security Data Protection (TSDP) policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

B.

Application-common TSDP policies are always container specific.

C.

Application-common OLS policies can be created only if all the PDBs in the application container are closed.

D.

Unified auditing can be automatically synchronized to all application PDBs in an application container.

E.

Fine-grained auditing (FGA) policies in an application root are automatically synchronized to all application PDBs contained in the application container when they are updated.

Question 31

Which three statements are true about Flashback Database?

Options:

A.

Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.

B.

Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.

C.

The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.

D.

Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.

E.

Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.

F.

Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks' before images, and then the redo data may be used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.

Question 32

Choose the best answer. Examine this output of an export from the current release of an Oracle multitenant database: $ sqlplus system/oracle . SQL> col name for a10 SQL> select name, open_mode from v$pdbs; NAME OPEN_MODE ---------------------------------------PDB$SEED READ ONLY PDB1 READ WRITE PDB2 MOUNTED SQL> exit Next you execute: $ expdp system/oracle full=y What is the outcome?

Options:

A.

It fails because Data Pump cannot be container.

B.

It creates a full export of the root

C.

It creates a full export of the root

D.

It creates a full export of only the used while connected to the root container and PDB1. container and all PDBs. container and all open PDBs. root container.

Question 33

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 34

Which three are true about Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server?

Options:

A.

It requires Oracle ASMLib to manage Automatic Storage Managerment (ASMl) disks.

B.

It creates one disk group during installation.

C.

It includes both Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) software.

D.

Automatic Storage Management (ASM requires that ars groups OSASM and OSDBA be assigned assecondary groups for its installation owner.

E.

It requires the operating system ORACLE_BASDE environment variable to be predefined before installation.

F.

It requires Oracle ASM Filter Drver (ASMFD) to manage Automatic Storage Managemernt (AsM) disks.

Question 35

A user complains about poor database performance. You want to verify if the user’s session has waited for certain types of I/O activity. Which view displays all waits waited on by a session at least once?

Options:

A.

V$SESSION_EVENT

B.

V$SESSTAT

C.

V$SESSION_WAIT

D.

V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS

E.

V$SESSION

Question 36

Choose two. In performance management, which two factors might reduce the ability of an application to scale to a larger number of users?

Options:

A.

poorly trained users who do not commit transactions

B.

the number of tablespaces containing tables updated by a transaction

C.

issuing multiple savepoints during a transaction

D.

the number of data files containing extents belonging to tables updated by a transaction

E.

poorly written SQL

Question 37

Which three are true about Optimizer Statistics Advisor? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It can be run only manually.

B.

It is part of the DBMS_ADVISOR package.

C.

It can recommend changes to improve the statistics gathering process.

D.

It always analyzes all schemas in the database.

E.

It runs automatically every night by default.

F.

It is part of the DBMS_STATS package.

Question 38

Unified auditing is enabled in your database. The HR_ADMIN and OE_ADMIN roles exist and are granted system privileges. You execute the command: SQL>CREATE AUDIT POLICY table_aud PRIVILEGES CREATE ANY TABLE, DROP ANY TABLE ROLES hr_admin,oe_admin; Which statement is true?

Options:

A.

It succeeds and needs to be enabled to capture all SQL statements that require either the specified privileges or any privilege granted to the HR_ADMIN or OE_ADMIN role.

B.

It fails because the command does notspecify when the unified audit policy should be enforced.

C.

It succeeds and starts capturing only successful SQL statements for all users who have either the specified privileges or roles granted to them.

D.

It fails because system privileges cannot be granted with roles in the same audit policy.

Question 39

Choose the best answer. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 is a container database. 2. APP_ROOT is an application root in CDB1. 3. APP_PDB1 is an application PDB in APP_ROOT. 4. FLASHBACK DATABASE is ON. You execute these commands: $ sqlplus sys/orac1e_4U@localhost:1521/cdb1 SQL> SELECT current_scn FROM v$database; CURRENT_SCN -----------------------2074756 SQL> CREATE TABLE cdb1_tab(c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_root; Session altered. SQL> CREATE TABLE app_root_tab (c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=app_pdb1; Session altered. SQL> CREATE TABLE app_pdb1_tab (c1 NUMBER) ; Table created. SQL> conn / as sysdba Connected. SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root CLOSE; Pluggable database altered. SQL> FLASHBACK PLUGGABLE DATABASE app_root TO SCN 2074756; Flashback complete. Which table or set of tables will exist after the Flashback operation has completed?

Options:

A.

CDB1_TAB, APP_ROOT_TAB, and APP_PDB1_TAB

B.

CDB1_TAB and APP_PDB1_TAB

C.

CDB1_TAB and APP_ROOT_TAB

D.

CDB1_TAB only

E.

none of the tables, because all three tables will be dropped

Question 40

Choose two. Which two are true about the Program Global Area (PGA) and its management in an Oracle database instance?

Options:

A.

The entire PGA is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.

B.

PGA_AGGREGATE_LIMIT is a hard limit on the PGA size for any one session.

C.

The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using dedicated servers.

D.

The private SQL area (UGA) is located in the System Global Area (SGA) when using shared servers.

E.

Sorts and Hash Joins use PGA memory.

Question 41

You issued this command: RMAN> BACKUP RECOVERY FILES; Which two are true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

All Oracle recovery files not in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

B.

All non-Oracle files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up.

C.

All Oracle recovery files in the current FRA that have not been backed up already, are backed up. D)All Oracle recovery files in the current fast recovery area (FRA) are backed up.

D.

These backups can be written to disk or SBT.

Question 42

A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table: BEGIN DBMS_REDACT.ADD_POLICY( object_schema object_name column_name policy_name function_type expression => 'SCOTT', => 'EMP', => 'SAL', => 'SCOTT_EMP', => DBMS_REDACT.FULL, => 'SYS_CONTEXT(''SYS_SESSION_ROLES'',''MGR'') END; All users have their default set of system privileges. For which three situations will data not be redacted?

Options:

A.

SYSsessions,regardlessoftherolesthataresetinthesession

B.

SYSTEMsessions,regardlessoftherolesthataresetinthesession

C.

SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session

D.

SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT

E.

SCOTTsessions,becauseheistheownerofthetable

F.

SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Question 43

Which two are true about Oracle Flashback features? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

FLASHBACK QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVE D REDO LOG files.

B.

FLASHBACK VERSION QUERY can retrieve REDO records from ONLINE and ARCHIVE D REDO LOG files.

C.

FLASHBACK TABLE can undrop a column.

D.

FLASHBACK DROP can undrop an index when undropping a table.

E.

After a database is restored from flashback logs using the FLASHBACK DATABASE command, it is sometimes rolled forward using redo logs.

Question 44

For which two requirements can you use the USER_TABLESPACE clause with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to specify a default tablespace in a PDB cloned from another PDB in the same CDB

B.

to exclude all tablespaces except SYSTEM, SYSAUX, and TEMP when plugging in a PDB

C.

to include specific user tablespaces only when relocating a PDB

D.

to specify the list of user tablespaces to include when moving a non-CDB to a PDB

E.

to exclude a temp tablespace when plugging in a PDB

F.

to specify the list of tablespaces to include when creating a PDB from the CDB seed

Question 45

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference. Which method or feature should you use?

Options:

A.

Database Replay

B.

Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C.

Active Session History (ASH) report

D.

SQL Performance Analyzer

Question 46

Your container database, CDB1, has an application container, HR_ROOT, with an application PDB, HR_PDB1. You have the required privilege to clone HR_PDB1 to container database CDB2, which does not contain HR_ROOT. Which two are always true? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

CDB1 and CDB2 must be in shared undo mode.

B.

A common user must exist in CDB2 with the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE privilege.

C.

All transactions in HR_PDB1 of CDB1 must commit before the cloning process starts.

D.

Cloning HR_ROOT automatically clones HR_PDB1.

E.

The HR_PDB1clone created in CDB2 will be in mount state when cloning ends.

Question 47

Which two are true about creating RMAN backups for an Oracle container database?

Options:

A.

Online Redo Log backups can be created while connected to CDB$ROOT

B.

Control file backups can be created while connected to CDB$ROOT.

C.

The BACKUP TABLESPACE command can back up a pDB tablespace even if RMAN is connected to CDB$ROOT.

D.

Archived Redo Log backups can be created while connected to PDB

E.

Control file backups can not be created while connected to a PDB

Question 48

Choose three. In a single-instance, multitenant container database (CDB), which three are only ever defined in or part of CDB$ROOT?

Options:

A.

redo logs

B.

control files

C.

all data dictionary metadata

D.

user-defined PL/SQL packages

E.

temporary tablespaces

F.

mandatory Oracle-supplied PL/SQL packages

G.

undo tablespaces

Question 49

In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments. On further investigation, you f ind that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks. Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

Options:

A.

Decreasing PCTUSED

B.

Decreasing PCTFREE

C.

Increasing the number of DBWN process

D.

Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)

E.

Increasing db_buffer_cache based on t he V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Question 50

Choose two. Which two are true about RMAN Multisection backups when a very large data file is divided into four sections?

Options:

A.

The four sections must be image copies.

B.

Each of the file sections must be processed serially.

C.

The four sections must be contained in backup sets.

D.

The four sections can be created in parallel.

E.

The four sections can be created serially.

Question 51

choose one .Examine the RMAN commands: RMAN> CONNECT TARGET "sbu@prod AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> CONNECT AUXILIARY "sbu@dup_db AS SYSBACKUP"; RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup_db FROM ACTIVE DATABASE PASSWORD FILE SECTION SIZE 400M; Which statement is true about the DUPLICATE command?

Options:

A.

It succeeds and creates multisection backup sets that are used for active database duplication.

B.

It fails because there is no connection to a recovery catalog.

C.

It succeeds only if the target database is in MOUNT state.

D.

It fails because no parallel channels are allocated for the auxiliary database.

Question 52

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with t he following specifications: Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier. The number of concurrent user connections will be high. The database will have mixed workload, with t he execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night. Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

Options:

A.

a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B.

a Data Warehouse database template, with t he dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C.

a General Purpose database template, with t he shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D.

a default database configuration

Question 53

Choose three. Your container database, CDB1, is in local undo mode. You successfully execute this command while connected to CDB1: CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE pdb1 ADMIN USER pdb1_admin IDENTIFIED BY pdb123 ROLES= (CONNECT) CREATE_FILE_DEST='/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/pdb1' ; Which three are true about PDB1?

Options:

A.

It has the same common users defined as does CDB1.

B.

It has only local roles.

C.

It has the same number of roles as CDB1.

D.

Service PDB1 is created for remote logins to PDB1.

E.

It is in mount state after creation.

F.

It has no local users.

Question 54

Choose three. Which three are true in Oracle 19c and later releases?

Options:

A.

Tablespaces always remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.

B.

Tablespaces never remain in read/write mode during transportable tablespace operations.

C.

A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read-only mode.

D.

Simultaneous data pump jobs can be limited at the pluggable database (PDB) level.

E.

A transportable data pump import can leave a plugged-in tablespace in read/write mode.

F.

An ordinary data pump export of a table with encrypted columns will always encrypt the same columns when imported.

Question 55

Which three can be done using Oracle Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) starting from Oracle Database 19c? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

cloning a remote container database in interactive mode

B.

cloning a remote pluggable database in silent mode

C.

relocating a remote pluggable database in interactive mode

D.

relocating a remote container database in silent mode

E.

cloning a remote container database in silent mode

F.

relocating a remote pluggable database in silent mode

G.

relocating a remote container database in interactive mode.

Question 56

Which three actions are performed by Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

It recompiles all stored PL/SQL code by using utlrp.sql.

B.

It empties the RECYCLE BIN.

C.

It performs prerequisite checks to verify if the Oracle database is ready for upgrade.

D.

It sets all user tablespaces to “read-only” before starting the upgrade.

E.

It removes the AUDSYS schema and the AUDIT_ADMIN and AUDIT_VIEWER roles

F.

It increases tablespace size, if required, to meet upgrade requirements.

Question 57

Examine this command: $ rhpctl move database –sourcehome Oracle_home_path –destinationhome Oracle_home_path For which two purposes can you use this command? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to switch an existing Oracle Database home to a newer release of Oracle software on the same server

B.

to switch to a read-only Oracle home

C.

to switch back to the previous Oracle home as part of a rollback operation

D.

to switch the Oracle Database home when using a centralized Rapid Home Provisioning server

E.

to switch to a patched Oracle Database home Answer: CE

Question 58

Choose the best answer. Your CDB has two regular PDBs as well as one application container with two application PDBs and an application seed. No changes have been made to the standard PDB $SEED. How many default temporary tablespaces can be assigned in the CDB?

Options:

A.

seven

B.

five

C.

eight

D.

three

E.

six

Question 59

Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Stateful alerts must be created by a DBA after resolving the problem.

B.

Stateless alerts can be purged manually from the alert history.

C.

Stateless alerts can be cleared manually.

D.

Stateless alerts are automatically cleared.

E.

Stateful alerts are purged automatically from the alert history

Question 60

Choose three. Which three are true about post-upgrade activities when upgrading an Oracle database using Database Upgrade Assistant?

Options:

A.

Any Recovery Manager (RMAN) recovery catalog must be upgraded manually.

B.

After a manual upgrade, TNSNAMES.ORA entries must be updated to reflect the new ORACLE_HOME.

C.

Time zone files must be upgraded manually using the DBMS_DST PL/SQL package.

D.

The new extended data type capability must be enabled by running the utlrp.sql script

E.

The Oracle Application Express configuration should be updated after upgrading Oracle Database.

Question 61

Which four are true about duplicating a database using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Duplication can be done by having the auxiliary database instance pull backup sets from the target database instance.

B.

A connection to an auxiliary instance is always required.

C.

A subset of the target database can be duplicated.

D.

A new DBID is always created for the duplicated database.

E.

A connection to the recovery catalog instance is always required.

F.

A backup of the target database is always required.

G.

Duplication can be done by having the target database instance push copies to the auxiliary database instance.

Question 62

Choose the best answer. Which statement correctly describes the SQL profiling performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

Options:

A.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to change the access methods used.

B.

It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to eliminate estimation error.

C.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid suboptimal execution plans.

D.

It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to help use better joins orders.

E.

It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to create new indexes.

Question 63

Choose two. Examine this configuration: 1. CDB1 and CDB2 are two container databases. 2. PDB1 is a pluggable database in CDB1. 3. PDB1_C1_SRV is a service for PDB1. 4. CDB1_LINK is a database link in CDB2 referring to PDB1. 5. CDB2 is also an entry in tnsnames.ora pointing to the CDB2 database default service. You execute these commands successfully: $ sqlplus sys/oracle_4U@cdb2 as sysdba SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 FROM PDB1@CDB1_LINK SERVICE_NAME_CONVERT= ('PDB1_C1_SRV', 'PDB1_C2_SRV') ; Which two are true?

Options:

A.

PDB1_C2_SRV will be created but not started.

B.

PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and automatically opened.

C.

PDB1_C1_SRV in CDB1 will be renamed PDB1_C2_SRV.

D.

PDB1 will be created in CDB2 and left in MOUNT state.

E.

PDB1_C2_SRV will be created and started automatically.

Question 64

Which two are facets of performance planning that should always be considered or implemented for an Oracle Database environment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

defining primary keys for all tables to speed up all queries

B.

using check constraints to speed up updates

C.

defining foreign keys for all tables to speed up joins

D.

the physical data model

E.

the configuration of storage arrays

Question 65

After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows: SQL> select number_value from REDACTION_VALUES_FOR_TYPE_FULL; NUMBER_VALUE ------------0 SQL> exec DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES(-1); SQL> select number_value from REDACTION_VALUES_FOR_TYPE_FULL; NUMBER_VALUE -------------1 After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

Options:

A.

Re-enableredactionpoliciesthatuseFULLdataredaction.

B.

Re-createredactionpoliciesthatuseFULLdataredaction.

C.

Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.

D.

Flushthesharedpool.

E.

Restart the database instance. Correct

Question 66

You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDBs). Examine the query and its output: Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password file?

Options:

A.

Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.

B.

Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.

C.

Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.

D.

Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.

E.

Re-createthepasswordfileintheOracleDatabase12cformat. Correct

Question 67

You accidentally drop the CUSTOMERS table, and then recover it by using the FLASHBACK TABLE command. Which two statements are true about the dependent objects of the CUSTOMERS table?

Options:

A.

All the triggers associated with the table are flashed back but are disabled.

B.

Materialized views that use the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

C.

LOB segments associated with the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

D.

All the constraints defined on the table, except the referential integrity constraints, are flashed back.

E.

Only the primary key constraint created for the table is flashed back, whereas all other indexes must be retrieved separately.

Question 68

Which three are true about managing memory components in an Oracle database instance? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Large Pool size by reducing the Shared Pool size.

B.

With Automatic Memory Management, the database instance can increase the System Global Area size by reducing the Program Global Area size.

C.

Automatically tuned and resized System Global Area components will always revert to their initial sizes after an instance restart.

D.

Automatic Memory Management must be used together with locking the System Global Area into physical memory.

E.

With Automatic Shared Memory Management, the database instance can increase the Program Global Area size by reducing the System Global Area size.

F.

On Line Transaction Processing systems often use less Program Global Area than Decision Support Systems.

Question 69

Choose three. In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems?

Options:

A.

when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

B.

when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

C.

when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value

D.

when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value

E.

when a resumable statement is suspended

F.

when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value

Question 70

Choose the best answer. SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) has reported several regressed SQL statements for one of your databases. Which action could help in the performance management of these regressed SQL statements?

Options:

A.

Create SQL plan directives for each of the regressed statements.

B.

Use The SQL Tuning Advisor for each of the regressed statements.

C.

Create an adaptive execution plan for each of the regressed statements

D.

Use the SQL Access Advisor for each of the regressed statements.

Question 71

Which three methods can be used for heap table data migration after upgrading a database? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

using Database Replay

B.

using SQL Developer

C.

using Oracle Data Pump

D.

using operating system file copy utilities

E.

using Database Upgrade Assistant

F.

using the CREATE TABLE AS SELECT SQL statement

Question 72

Choose two. Which two are true about diagnosing Oracle Database failure situations using Data Recovery Advisor?

Options:

A.

Data Recovery Advisor can proactively check for failures.

B.

Using the Data Recovery Advisor LIST FAILURE command always requires that the database for which failures are to be listed is in MOUNT state.

C.

ata Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is in the NOMOUNT state.

D.

A failure can be closed only if the database is in MOUNT state.

E.

Data Recovery Advisor can be used if a database is closed.

Question 73

Choose the best answer. You want to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace from one database to another. The UNIVERSITY tablespace is currently open read/write. The source and destination platforms have the same endian Examine this list of steps:. 1. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read-only on the source 2. Export the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using EXPDP. 3. Create a cross-platform backup set from the UNIVERSITY source system, using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause. 4. Copy the cross-platform backup sets to the destination system. 5. Copy the Data Pump dump set from the source to the destination system. 6. Restore the cross-platform backup set on the destination system using an RMAN command that includes the DATAPUMP clause. 7. Import the UNIVERSITY tablespace metadata using IMPDP. 8. Make the UNIVERSITY tablespace read/write on the destination system. Which are the minimum number of steps required, in the correct order, to transport the UNIVERSITY tablespace?

Options:

A.

3,4,6

B.

2,3,4,5,6,7

C.

1,3,4,6,8

D.

1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8

Question 74

Your production database is running in archivelog mode. You use RMAN with a recovery catalog to back up your database to media and the database is uniquely identified in the recovery catalog. You want to create a test database from the production database and allow the production database to remain open during the duplicate process. You restore the database backups to a new host with the same directory structure as the production database and want to use the recovery catalog for future backups after the database is successfully restored to the new host. How would you achieve this?

Options:

A.

by using the RMAN switch command to set the new location for the data files

B.

by using the RMAN duplicate command with nofilenamecheck to recover the database to the new host

C.

by using the RMAN duplicate command with dbid and set new name for tablespace to recover the database to the new host

D.

by creating a new database in the new host, and then using the RMAN recover command

Question 75

Choose three. Which three are true about Data Pump in an Oracle multitenant environment?

Options:

A.

It can be used to transport data from a non-CDB to a PDB.

B.

It can be used to clone a CDB.

C.

It can be used to transport data between PDBs.

D.

It can be used to transport data from a PDB to a non-CDB.

E.

It can be used to create a new PDB.

Question 76

Choose two. Which two are true about monitoring waits for sessions and services?

Options:

A.

V$SERVICE_EVENT displays wait counts for every wait event for each service even including counts of zero for waits that never occurred.

B.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a non-waiting session last waited.

C.

V$SESSION_WAIT and V$SESSION both contain details of the event on which a waiting session is currently waiting.

D.

V$SESSION_EVENT displays all waits events for those events that have occurred at least once for sessions that have now terminated.

E.

V$SESSION_WAIT_CLASS displays waits broken down by wait class only for terminated sessions.

Question 77

Examine the statements that use flashback technologies:

FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP('2013-02-04 09:30:00', 'YYYYMM¬DD HH:MI:SS');

SELECT * FROM customers AS OF SCN 123456;

FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO BEFORE DROP;

FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP('2013-02-04 09:30:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH:MI:SS');

SELECT * FROM customers VERSIONS BETWEEN SCN 123456 AND 123999;

ALTER TABLE customers FLASHBACK ARCHIVE; Which set ofstatements depends on the availability of relevant undo data in the undo tablespace?

Options:

A.

1,3,6

B.

1,2,5

C.

3,4,5

D.

2,3,5,6

Question 78

Which three are true about upgrading Oracle Grid Infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A direct upgrade can be performed only from the immediately preceding Oracle Grid Infrastructure version.

B.

The newer version is installed in a separate Oracle Grid Infrastructure home on the same server as the existing version.

C.

An existing Oracle base can be used.

D.

The upgrade process will automatically install all mandatory patches for the current version of Oracle Grid Infrastructure.

E.

Existing Oracle Database instances must be shut down before starting the upgrade.

F.

Only the grid user can perform the upgrade.

Question 79

Examine the RMAN command: RMAN> RUN { ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c2 DEVICE TYPE sbt; ALLOCATE CHANNEL c3 DEVICE TYPE sbt; BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL = 0 (DATAFILE 1,4,5 CHANNEL c1) (DATAFILE 2,3,9 CHANNEL c2) (DATAFILE 6,7,8 CHANNEL c3); SQL 'ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOG CURRENT'; } Which statement is true about the command?

Options:

A.

It uses multisection backup.

B.

It uses parallelization for the backup set.

C.

It uses asynchronousI/O for the backup.

D.

It creates compressed backup sets.

Question 80

Choose three. Which three are performed by Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instances?

Options:

A.

mounting disk groups

B.

acting as an I/O server to read data file blocks from ASM disks on behalf of database server processes

C.

managing extent allocation for Oracle database segments

D.

managing Allocation Units (AUs) for disk group content

E.

managing space allocation for Oracle ASM files

F.

acting as an I/O server to write data file blocks to ASM disks on behalf of Database Writer processes (DBWn)

Question 81

Which three are true about backup, restore, and recovery operations done without using Recovery Manager (RMAN)? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the databased be in the MOUNT state.

B.

Backing up a database in ARCHIVE LOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in MOUNT state.

C.

An Oracle database can be restored from backup files copied using O/S utilities.

D.

Oracle data file backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as IMAGE COPIES.

E.

Backing up a database in NOARCHIVELOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be shut down.

F.

Oracle archive log backups, copied using an O/S utility, can be added to the RMAN catalog as a backup set.

G.

Backing up a database in ARCHIVE LOG mode using O/S utilities requires that the database instance be started and the database be in OPEN state.

Question 82

While backing up to the Oracle Fast Recovery Area (FRA), you determined the backup istaking too long and suspect a performance bottleneck. Which three are true about diagnosing and tuning these problems? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takesroughly the same time as an actual backup, then both read and write I/O are likely bottlenecks.

B.

Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using synchronous I/O.

C.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takes noticeably lessthan an actual backup, then write I/O is a likely bottleneck.

D.

If an RMAN BACKUP VALIDATE command takesroughly the same time as an actual backup, then read I/O is a likely bottleneck.

E.

Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_SYNC_IO.DISCRETE_BYTES_PER_SECOND are a potential performance bottleneck when synchronous I/O is used.

F.

Setting DBWR_IO_SLAVES to a non zero value can improve backup performance when using asynchronous I/O/

G.

Data files with a high value in V$BACKUP_ASYNC_IO.SHORT_WAITS are a potential performance bottleneck when asynchronous I/O is used.

Question 83

Choose the best answer. Application PDBs, SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2, must be created and they must access common tables of the SALES_APP application. Examine these steps: 1. Install the SALES_APP application, including the common tables, in the application root. 2. Install the SALES_APP application in the application root and the common tables in both the CDB root and the application root. 3. Create an application seed.; 4. Install the SALES_APP application in the application seed. 5. Create the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs. 6. Sync root. 7. Sync seed. 8. Sync the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application the SALES_APP1 and SALES_APP2 application PDBs with the application the application seed with the application root.

Which are the minimum required steps in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

1,3,5,7

B.

3,4,1,6,8

C.

1,3,5,6,7

D.

1,5,6

E.

2,5,6

Question 84

choose two You take your database backups by using the RMAN media management interface (MMI). Which two are true about the use of the RMAN MMI?

Options:

A.

You can

B.

You can

C.

You can

D.

You can

E.

You can

Question 85

Choose two. Which two are true about RMAN backups when using a media manager?

Options:

A.

A media manager always writes RMAN requested backups to tape.

B.

A media manager is required to create RMAN image copies.

C.

A media manager is required to create RMAN proxy copies.

D.

The media manager layer (MML) routines provided by Oracle support any vendors' media management products.

E.

By default, a request for a proxy copy may result in a backup set being created.

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