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Total 212 questions

GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the essence or the central meaning of GRC?

Options:

A.

A connected and integrated approach that provides a pathway to Principled Performance by overcoming VUCA and disconnection

B.

A system for monitoring and evaluating the performance of employees and teams

C.

A set of guidelines and regulations for corporate governance and ethical conduct

D.

A framework for managing financial risks and ensuring fiscal responsibility

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Question 2

What practices are involved in analyzing and understanding an organization’s ethical culture?

Options:

A.

Developing a strategic plan to achieve the organization’s long-term goals for improving ethical culture

B.

Conducting a survey of employees every few years on their views about the organization’s commitment to ethical conduct

C.

Implementing a performance appraisal system to evaluate employee performance

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce generally demonstrates integrity

Question 3

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

Question 4

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

Question 5

What is the difference between a mission and a vision?

Options:

A.

The mission states the organization’s purpose and direction, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be.

B.

The mission is determined by external stakeholders, while the vision is determined by internal stakeholders.

C.

The mission is a short-term financial goal, while the vision is a long-term non-financial goal.

D.

The mission is what a for-profit organization should have, while the vision is for non-profit organizations.

Question 6

What type of policy provides instructions on what actions should be avoided by the organization?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive Policy

B.

Procedural Policy

C.

Proscriptive Policy

D.

Reactive Policy

Question 7

What does it mean for an organization to be "agile" within the context of the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The ability to rapidly expand and scale the organization’s operations in response to change

B.

The ability to quickly re-learn context and culture when things change

C.

The ability to adapt the organization’s mission and vision to changing market conditions

D.

The ability to effectively manage risks and respond to compliance issues that are identified

Question 8

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

Question 9

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

Options:

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

Question 10

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

Options:

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

Question 11

Which aspect of culture includes how the organization objectively examines and judges the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of critical activities and outcomes?

Options:

A.

Management culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Governance culture

D.

Assurance culture

Question 12

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

Options:

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

Question 13

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

Options:

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

Question 14

Why is it necessary to provide timely disclosures about the resolution of issues to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To ensure protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters.

C.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

D.

To meet legal requirements and provide confidence to stakeholders about the process.

Question 15

What are leading indicators and lagging indicators?

Options:

A.

Leading indicators are types of input from leaders in each unit of the organization, while lagging indicators are views provided by departing employees during exit interviews.

B.

Leading indicators are financial metrics, while lagging indicators are non-financial metrics.

C.

Leading indicators are qualitative measures, while lagging indicators are quantitative measures.

D.

Leading indicators provide information about future events or conditions, while lagging indicators provide information about past events or conditions.

Question 16

What are the four dimensions used to assess Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Quality, Productivity, Flexibility, and Durability

B.

Accuracy, Precision, Speed, and Stability

C.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

D.

Compliance, Consistency, Adaptability, and Robustness

Question 17

What are beliefs, and how do they influence behavior within an organization?

Options:

A.

Beliefs are ideas and assumptions held by individuals or groups, often shaped by experiences and perceptions, that influence behavior by informing the values and principles that guide actions and decisions.

B.

Beliefs are the organization’s commitments to mandatory and voluntary obligations, and they influence behavior by determining the extent to which individuals fulfill obligations and honor promises.

C.

Beliefs are the organization’s understanding of its mission, vision, and values, and they influence behavior by aligning actions with the organization's higher purpose and long-term goals.

D.

Beliefs are the organization’s perceptions of risk and uncertainty, and they influence behavior by guiding actions and controls to address compliance-related risks.

Question 18

What is the advantage of using technology-based inquiry for discovering events?

Options:

A.

This inquiry prevents the need for employee surveys.

B.

This inquiry eliminates the need to analyze information.

C.

This inquiry focuses on unfavorable events.

D.

This inquiry often provides information sooner than other methods.

Question 19

What is the difference between "Change the Organization" (CTO) objectives and "Run the Organization" (RTO) objectives?

Options:

A.

CTO objectives are based on subjective measures, while RTO objectives are based on objective measures

B.

CTO objectives are only relevant for change management planning, while RTO objectives are relevant for operational managers

C.

CTO objectives focus on producing new value and improving performance, while RTO objectives focus on preserving existing value and maintaining service levels

D.

CTO objectives are determined by the board of directors, while RTO objectives are determined by front-line managers

Question 20

What is the design option that involves ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Control

Question 21

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

Options:

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

Question 22

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

Question 23

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

Question 24

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

Question 25

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

Question 26

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "suitable criteria"?

Options:

A.

Benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results

B.

Legal and regulatory requirements that an organization must comply with

C.

Ethical standards and codes of conduct established by an organization

D.

Financial targets and performance metrics set by an organization

Question 27

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

Question 28

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

Question 29

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

Question 30

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

Question 31

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and setdirection?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

Question 32

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

Options:

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

Question 33

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

Question 34

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

Question 35

In the context of GRC, what is the significance of setting objectives that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timebound (SMART)?

Options:

A.

SMART objectives can be more easily communicated to stakeholders to gain their confidence

B.

SMART objectives allow the organization to avoid accountability and responsibility for failing to achieve objectives

C.

SMART objectives provide clarity, focus, and direction and help ensure that objectives are effectively aligned with the organization’s goals and priorities

D.

SMART objectives are only relevant for financial objectives and have no impact on non-financial objectives

Question 36

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

Question 37

Which is a potential consequence of information compression in layered communication?

Options:

A.

Uninformed decision-making by mid-level management

B.

No consequence of concern if the correct, undistorted information is always available in the information management systems

C.

Incorrect information content and information flow to superior units

D.

Discovery of the need to remove layers so that the communications are more direct and distortion is avoided

Question 38

What is the purpose of implementing ongoing and periodic review activities?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for external audits.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of operations.

C.

To gauge the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of actions and controls.

D.

To have documentation for use in defending against enforcement or legal actions.

Question 39

Which category of actions and controls in the IACM includes human factors such as structure, accountability, education, and enablement?

Options:

A.

Technology

B.

Policy

C.

Information

D.

People

Question 40

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

Question 41

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

Question 42

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

Options:

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

Question 43

What is the purpose of conducting after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events

B.

To provide timely incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To uncover root causes of favorable and unfavorable events and improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

To establish a tiered approach for responding to unfavorable events

Question 44

What are some examples of legal and regulatory factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market research, customer feedback, and competitive analysis

B.

How the organization's legal department and outside legal counsel coordinate activities

C.

Laws, rules, regulations, litigation, and judicial or administrative opinions

D.

Enforcement actions and litigation against the company

Question 45

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

Question 46

What is the term used to describe an event that may have a negative effect on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Hazard

C.

Obstacle (Threat)

D.

Challenge

Question 47

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

Question 48

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

Question 49

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

Options:

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

Question 50

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

Question 51

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

Question 52

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

Question 53

Why is it important for an organization to balance the needs of diverse stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To prevent stakeholders from forming alliances against the organization.

B.

To ensure that all stakeholders receive equal consideration.

C.

To comply with industry regulations regarding stakeholder management.

D.

To address the requests, wants, or expectations of stakeholders and inform the mission, vision, and objectives of the organization.

Question 54

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves bringing stability against volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous realities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Versatile

C.

Stable

D.

Accountable

Question 55

The difference between the current skill level and the target skill level is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Learning Objective

B.

Educational Needs

C.

Skill Gap

D.

Skill Set

Question 56

What are norms?

Options:

A.

Norms are customs, rules, or expectations that a group socially reinforces.

B.

Norms are the typical ways that the business operates.

C.

Norms are the regular employees of an organization as opposed to contractors brought in for unusual (not normal) projects.

D.

Norms are the normal or typical financial targets set by the organization.

Question 57

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

Options:

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

Question 58

What are the two measures used to estimate the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Accuracy and precision

B.

Likelihood and impact

C.

Probability and consequence

D.

Certainty and effect

Question 59

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

Question 60

In the GRC Capability Model, what is the primary focus of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Implementing new policies and procedures to enhance organizational performance

B.

Continuously improving total performance by monitoring actions and controls and providing assurance about priority objectives, opportunities, obstacles, and obligations

C.

Exclusively focusing on monitoring actions and controls without providing assurance

D.

Conducting audits and inspections to identify non-compliance issues

Question 61

Which design option is characterized by implementing actions that govern and manage the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation according to its nature?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Share

C.

Accept

D.

Avoid

Question 62

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

Question 63

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

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Total 212 questions