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IIA IIA-CHAL-QISA Dumps

Qualified Info Systems Auditor CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a true statement regarding whistleblowing?

Options:

A.

Whistleblowing is one of several possible ethical structures an organization can undertake to encourage ethical behavior.

B.

Whistleblowing programs help employees deal with ethical questions and instill ethical values into everyday behavior

C.

Whistleblowers are current or former employees who are disgruntled and looking to retaliate.

D.

Whistleblowers should inform the organization about actual criminal circumstances, not assumed allegations.

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Question 2

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of tangible and intangible assets?

Options:

A.

For plant assets, cost includes the purchase price and the cost of design and construction

B.

For intangible assets, cost includes the purchase price and development costs.

C.

Due to their indefinite nature, intangible assets are not subject to amortization.

D.

The organization must expense any cost incurred in developing a plant asset

Question 4

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 5

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

Options:

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

Question 6

A bank uses customer departmentalization to categorize its departments. Which of the following groups best exemplifies this method of categorization?

Options:

A.

Community, institutional, and agricultural banking

B.

Mortgages, credit cards, and savings.

C.

South, southwest and east.

D.

Teller, manager, and IT specialist

Question 7

At a conference an internal auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE). However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 8

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagements planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques

Question 9

An organization uses the management-by-objectives method, whereby employee performance is based on defined goals. Which of the following statements is true regarding this approach?

Options:

A.

It is particularly helpful to management when the organization is facing rapid change.

B.

It is a more successful approach when adopted by mechanistic organizations.

C.

it is more successful when goal-setting Is performed not only by management, but by all team members, including lower-level staff

D.

it is particularly successful in environments that are prone to having poor employer-employee relations

Question 10

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

Question 11

Operational management In the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap.

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability reward failure

D.

Communication failure

Question 12

While auditing an organization's credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditors relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative's information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative Is a customer

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement

Question 13

Which of the following is most likely to impair the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE oversees the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management function.

C.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

D.

The CAE managed the finance department for the past five years.

Question 14

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps should precede the development of audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls.

B.

Scope establishment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Review of resources.

Question 15

A bicycle manufacturer incurs a combination of fixed and variable costs with the production of each bicycle. Which of the following statements is true regarding these costs?

Options:

A.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 15 percent, the variable cost per unit will increase proportionally

B.

The fixed cost per unit will vary directly based on the number of bicycles produced during the production cycle.

C.

The total variable cost will vary proportionally and inversely with the number of bicycles produced during a production run.

D.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 30 percent, the fixed cost per unit will decline.

Question 16

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and Investigation at multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 17

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement

Question 18

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement

Question 19

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

it documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review

Question 20

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

Question 21

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditors professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization's policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures

Question 22

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

Question 23

When using cost-volume-profit analysis, which of the following will increase operating income once the break-even point has been reached?

Options:

A.

Fixed costs per unit for each additional unit sold.

B.

Variable costs per unit for each additional unit sold.

C.

Contribution margin per unit for each additional unit sold.

D.

Gross margin per unit for each additional unit sold

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives

Question 25

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with managements decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders.

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel.

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

Question 26

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

Question 27

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization’s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board*?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 28

A rapidly expanding retail organization continues to be tightly controlled by its original small management team. Which of the following is a potential risk in this vertically centralized organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of coordination among different business units

B.

Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals.

C.

Suboptimal decision-making.

D.

Duplication of business activities.

Question 29

An investor has acquired an organization that has a dominant position in a mature, slow-growth industry and consistently creates positive financial income Which of the following terms would the investor most likely label this investment in her portfolio?

Options:

A.

A star.

B.

A cash cow.

C.

A question mark.

D.

A dog

Question 30

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

Question 31

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the Internal audit activity^

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

Question 32

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

Question 33

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization's policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, Internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 34

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

Question 35

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding due professional care?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors must exercise due professional care to ensure that all significant risks will be identified.

B.

Internal auditors must apply the care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

C.

Due professional care requires the internal auditor to conduct extensive examinations and verifications to ensure fraud does not exist.

D.

Due professional care is displayed during a consulting engagement when the internal auditor focuses on potential benefits of the engagement rather than the cost

Question 36

An internal auditor believes that the internal audit activity's independence is impaired Which of the following actions should the internal auditor take first?

Options:

A.

Report the impairment to senior management

B.

Discuss the impairment with the audit manager.

C.

Ascertain the best approach to disclose the impairment.

D.

Decide on the extent of impact of the impairment

Question 37

An organization invests excess short-term cash in trading securities Which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to test the valuation of those securities'*

Options:

A.

Use the equity method to recalculate the investment carrying value

B.

Confirm the securities held by the broker.

C.

Perform a calculation of premium or discount amortization.

D.

Compare the carrying value with current market quotations

Question 38

Which of the following would most likely be found in an organization that uses a decentralized organizational structure?

Options:

A.

There is a higher reliance on organizational culture

B.

There are clear expectations set for employees.

C.

There are electronic monitoring techniques employed

D.

There is a defined code for employee behavior

Question 39

Which of the following recognized competitive strategies focuses on gaining efficiencies?

Options:

A.

Focus

B.

Cost leadership.

C.

Innovation

D.

Differentiation

Question 40

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days What conditions would an auditor look for as an Indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day. total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used

B.

On a sunny day. total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

Question 41

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

Question 42

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the Internal auditor wasassigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

Question 43

A company makes a product at a cost of $26 per unit, of which $10 is fixed cost. The product is usually sold for $30 per unit; however, the company has been approached by a new customer who would like to purchase 3,500 units for $18 each Further, the company would Incur additional cost to deliver the units to this customer If the company has the excess manufacturing capacity and all other factors are constant, what is the additional cost that the company would Incur in order to makea profit of $1.50 per unit for this order?

Options:

A.

$0.50

B.

$1.50

C.

$2 50

D.

$3.50

Question 44

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

Question 45

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA's Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.