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Free and Premium Checkpoint 156-315.77 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 754 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert Questions and Answers

Question 1

MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the administrator do first?

Options:

A.

Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.

B.

Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.

C.

Upgrade every unit directly to R77.

D.

Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

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Question 2

MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?

Options:

A.

Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.

B.

Use already installed Migration Tool.

C.

Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO

D.

Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint website

Question 3

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?

Options:

A.

Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

B.

Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.

C.

Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

D.

Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.

Question 4

When using a template to define a user in SmartDirectory, the user’s password should be defined in the _____ object.

Options:

A.

VPN Community

B.

LDAP

C.

Template

D.

User

Question 5

Which of the following CLISH commands would you use to set the admin user's shell to bash?

Options:

A.

set user admin shell bash

B.

set user admin shell /bin/bash

C.

set user admin shell = /bin/bash

D.

set user admin /bin/bash

Question 6

The process that performs the authentication for legacy session authentication is:

Options:

A.

cvpnd

B.

fwm

C.

vpnd

D.

fwssd

Question 7

User definitions are stored in _____.

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/users.NDB

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwmuser.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwusers.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.NDB

Question 8

The process _____ executes the authentication for logging in to SmartDashboard.

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

vpnd

C.

cpd

D.

cvpnd

Question 9

When an Endpoint user is able to authenticate but receives a message from the client that it is unable to enforce the desktop policy, what is the most likely scenario?

Options:

A.

The gateway could not locate the user in SmartDirectory and is allowing the connection with limitations based on a generic profile.

B.

The user’s rights prevent access to the protected network.

C.

A Desktop Policy is not configured.

D.

The user is attempting to connect with the wrong Endpoint client.

Question 10

How could you compare the Fingerprint shown to the Fingerprint on the server? Run cpconfig and select:

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

the Certificate Authority option and view the fingerprint.

B.

the GUI Clients option and view the fingerprint.

C.

the Certificate's Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

D.

the Server Fingerprint option and view the fingerprint.

Question 11

MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?

Options:

A.

No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.

B.

No. If SmartCenter is already under stress, the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.

C.

No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.

D.

Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

Question 12

Fill in the blank.

Write the full fw command and syntax that you would use to troubleshoot ClusterXL sync issues.

Options:

Question 13

Fill in the blanks.

To view the number of concurrent connections going through your firewall, you would use the command and syntax _____ _____ _____ _____ _____.

Options:

Question 14

_____ is the called process that starts when opening SmartView Tracker application.

Options:

A.

FWM

B.

CPLMD

C.

logtrackerd

D.

fwlogd

Question 15

Fill in the blank.

To enter the router shell, use command _____.

Options:

Question 16

Which command will only show the number of entries in the connection table?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t connections -s

B.

fw tab -t connections -u

C.

fw tab -t connections

D.

fw tab

Question 17

Which CLI tool helps on verifying proper ClusterXL sync?

Options:

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl sync

C.

fw ctl pstat

D.

cphaprob stat

Question 18

Fill in the blank.

In Load Sharing Unicast mode, the internal cluster IP address is 10.4.8.3. The internal interfaces on two members are 10.4.8.1 and 10.4.8.2. Internal host 10.4.8.108 Pings 10.4.8.3, and receives replies. The following is the ARP table from the internal Windows host 10.4.8.108.

Review the exhibit and type the IP address of the member serving as the pivot machine in the space below.

Options:

Question 19

Steve is troubleshooting a connection problem with an internal application. If he knows the source IP address is 192.168.4.125, how could he filter this traffic?

Options:

A.

Run fw monitor -e "accept src-ip=192.168.4.125;"

B.

Run fw monitor -e "accept src=192.168.4.125;"

C.

Run fw monitor -e "accept dst-ip=192.168.4.125;"

D.

Run fw monitor -e "accept ip=192.168.4.125;"

Question 20

Fill in the blank.

Type the full fw command and syntax that allows you to disable only sync on a cluster firewall member.

Options:

Question 21

You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (Al) R55 Gateway to SecurePlatform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate.

Which package is needed in the repository before upgrading?

Options:

A.

SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro

B.

VPN-1 and Firewall-1

C.

SecurePlatform NGX R60

D.

SVN Foundation 3

E.

VPN-1 Pro/Express NGXR60

Question 22

Which of the following load-balancing methods is not valid?

Options:

A.

Domain

B.

They are all valid

C.

Round trip

D.

Random

Question 23

When configuring site-to-site VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

MEP Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.

B.

The decision on which MEP Gateway to use is made on the MEP Gateway's side of the tunnel.

C.

MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.

D.

If one MEP Security Gateway fails, the connection is lost and the backup Gateway picks up the next connection.

Question 24

Which of the following is supported with Office Mode?

Options:

A.

Secure mote

B.

Secure Client

C.

SSL Network Extender

D.

Connect Mode

Question 25

When a security administrator logs in to SmartDashboard and selects Continue without session from the following window,what kind of access will be granted to him in SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

He will get read-only access to the policy, network objects and session management.

B.

He will get read-only access to the policy and network objects; however, he can still manage the sessions, i.e. Approve, Request Repair etc.

C.

A new session will automatically be created with a default session name along with date and time. All changes made by the manager will be saved in this new session.

D.

No access will be granted, he will be logged out of SmartDashboard.

Question 26

After installing VPN-1 Pro NGQ R65, you discover that one port on your Intel Quad NIC on the Security Gateway is not fetched by a get topology request. What is the most likely cause and solution?

Options:

A.

The NIC is faulty. Replace it and reinstall.

B.

Make sure the driver for you particular NIC is available, and reinstall. You will be prompted for the driver.

C.

If an interface is not configured, it is not recognized. Assign an IP and subnet mask using the Web UI.

D.

Your NIC driver is installed but was not recognized. Apply the latest Secure PlatformR65 Hotfix Accumulator (HFA).

Question 27

Where do Gateways managed by SmartProvisioning fetch their assigned profiles?

Options:

A.

The SmartView Monitor

B.

The standalone SmartProvisioning server

C.

The Security Management server or CMA

D.

They are fetched locally from the individual device

Question 28

Which of the following can NOT be done on the Management Portal?

Options:

A.

Set the Management Portal to use HTTP instead of HTTPS

B.

Configure Management Portal to bypass authentication when connecting from a specific IP address

C.

Restrict hosts / networks that can access the portal

D.

Run the Management Portal on a port other than the default port 4433

Question 29

What is the significance of the depicted icon in the SmartWorkflow toolbar?

Options:

A.

Submit for Approval

B.

Check the consistency of SmartWorkflow sessions.

C.

Overall status information: Everything is OK.

D.

Session has been approved.

Question 30

What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?

Options:

A.

Get all Gateway Data

B.

Reboot gateway

C.

Preinstall verifier

D.

Fetch sync status

Question 31

Exhibit:

What cluster mode is represented in this case?

Options:

A.

3rd party cluster

B.

HA (New mode)

C.

Load Sharing Unicast (Pivot) mode

D.

Load Sharing (multicast mode)

Question 32

How do you run “CPSIZEME” on SPLAT?

Options:

A.

[expert@HostName]#>./cpsizeme -h

B.

[expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme -R

C.

This is not possible on SPLAT

D.

[expert@HostName]# ./cpsizeme

Question 33

When do modifications to the Event Policy take effect?

Options:

A.

As soon as the Policy Tab window is closed.

B.

When saved on the SmartEvent Server and installed to the Correlation Units.

C.

When saved on the Correlation Units, and pushed as a policy.

D.

When saved on the SmartEvent Client, and installed on the SmartEvent Server.

Question 34

When Load Sharing Multicast mode is defined in a ClusterXL cluster object, how are packets being handled by cluster members?

Options:

A.

Only one member at a time is active. The active cluster member processes all packets.

B.

All members receive all packets. All members run an algorithm which determines which member processes packets further and which members delete the packet from memory.

C.

The pivot machine will handle it.

D.

All cluster members process all packets and members synchronize with each other.

Question 35

The process _____ complies $FWDIR/CONF/*.W files into machine language.

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fw gen

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

Question 36

What is NOT a valid LDAP use in Check Point SmartDirectory?

Options:

A.

Retrieve gateway CRL’s

B.

Enforce user access to internal resources

C.

External users management

D.

Provide user authentication information for the Security Management Server

Question 37

In a Check Point gateway cluster, are VRRP and ClusterXL mutually exclusive?

Options:

A.

No, both gateways should have SPLAT installed.

B.

No, only IPSO able to enable both technologies simultaneously.

C.

Yes

D.

No, you need to install GAiA if you want to use both technologies simultaneously.

Question 38

Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?

Options:

A.

R65

B.

S71

C.

R55

D.

R60A

Question 39

Which of these is a type of acceleration in SecureXL?

Options:

A.

QoS

B.

FTP

C.

connection rate

D.

GRE

Question 40

When migrating the SmartEvent data base from one server to another, the last step is to save the files on the new server. Which of the following commands should you run to save the SmartEvent data base files on the new server?

Options:

A.

cp

B.

restore

C.

migrate import

D.

eva_db_restore

Question 41

John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R77. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:

Title: Incompatible pattern.

What is happening?

Options:

A.

The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R77. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R77 Security Gateways.

B.

R77 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.

C.

Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.

D.

Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be aborted.

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT a valid way to view interface’s IP address settings in GAiA?

Options:

A.

Using the command ethtool in Expert Mode

B.

Viewing the file /config/active

C.

Via the Gaia WebUI

D.

Via the command show configuration in CLISH

Question 43

Which of the following is the preferred method for adding static routes in GAiA?

Options:

A.

In the CLI with the command “route add”

B.

In Web Portal, under Network Management > IPv4 Static Routes

C.

In the CLI via sysconfig

D.

In SmartDashboard under Gateway Properties > Topology

Question 44

Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?

Options:

A.

Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration

B.

State, SecurePlatform version, and patch level

C.

State, SecurePlatform version, and objects database

D.

Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level

Question 45

MegaCorps' disaster recovery plan is past due for an update to the backup and restore section to enjoy the benefits of the new distributed R77 installation. You must propose a plan that meets the following required and desired objectives:

Required: Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired: Back up R77 components enforcing the Security Policies at least once a week.

Desired: Back up R77 logs at least once a week.

You develop a disaster recovery plan proposing the following:

The corporate IT change review committee decides your plan:

Options:

A.

meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B.

meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

C.

meets the rquired objective but does not meet either deisred objective.

D.

does not meet the required objective.

Question 46

You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use three machines with the following configurations:

Cluster Member 1: OS - GAiA; NICs - QuadCard; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway - version: R71 and primary Security Management Server installed, version: R77

Cluster Member 2: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 Intel 3Com; Memory - 1 GB; Security Gateway only, version: R77

Cluster Member 3: OS - GAiA; NICs - 4 other manufacturers; Memory - 512 MB; Security Gateway only, version: R77

Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?

Options:

A.

No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.

B.

Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.

C.

No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster members.

D.

No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Server.

Question 47

Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?

1) same operating systems

2) same Check Point version

3) same appliance model

4) same policy

Options:

A.

1, 3, and 4

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

2, 3, and 4

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 48

Which of the following is NOT part of the policy installation process?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Validation

C.

Code compilation

D.

Code generation

Question 49

The process _____ is responsible for all other security server processes run on the Gateway.

Options:

A.

CPD

B.

FWM

C.

FWD

D.

FWSSD

Question 50

When restoring R77 using the command upgrade_import, which of the following items are NOT restored?

Options:

A.

Route tables

B.

Gateway topology

C.

Licenses

D.

User db

Question 51

Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs)?

Options:

A.

VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.

B.

VTIs are only supported on SecurePlatform.

C.

VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.

D.

Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.

Question 52

There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:

Options:

A.

Assign links to specific VPN communities.

B.

Probe links for availability.

C.

Use links based on authentication method.

D.

Use links based on Day/Time.

Question 53

When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues need to be considered?

1) Each member must have a unique source IP address.

2) Every interface on each member requires a unique IP address.

3) All VTI's going to the same remote peer must have the same name.

4) Cluster IP addresses are required.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 4

B.

2 and 3

C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 54

There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:

Options:

A.

Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

B.

Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic.

C.

Use links based on Day/Time.

D.

Use links based on authentication method.

Question 55

You have configured a site to site VPN, but the tunnel in not coming up. Review the following screen shots. What is a likely cause?

Options:

A.

Link selection is set to use Main address.

B.

General Properties IP address is required to be the external interface.

C.

Nothing, it is configured properly

Question 56

Your organization maintains several IKE VPN’s. Executives in your organization want to know which mechanism Security Gateway R77 uses to guarantee the authenticity and integrity of messages. Which technology should you explain to the executives?

Options:

A.

Certificate Revocation Lists

B.

Application Intelligence

C.

Key-exchange protocols

D.

Digital signatures

Question 57

Fill in the blank.

To verify that a VPN Tunnel is properly established, use the command _____.

Options:

Question 58

If both domain-based and route-based VPN’s are configured, which will take precedence?

Options:

A.

Route-based

B.

Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the Policy > Global Properties

C.

Domain-based

D.

Must be chosen/configured manually by the Administrator in the VPN community object

Question 59

There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:

Options:

A.

Assign links to specific VPN communities.

B.

Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

C.

Set up links for Remote Access.

D.

Use links based on Day/Time.

Question 60

Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R75 can take when it controls packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below that includes the available actions:

Options:

A.

Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop

B.

Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy

C.

Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth

D.

Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth

Question 61

Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side? In SmartDashboard under:

Options:

A.

Gateway Setting

B.

NAT Rules

C.

Global Properties > NAT definition

D.

Implied Rules

Question 62

The “MAC Magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

Options:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are more than two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

Question 63

You are the MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization link (cross-over cable). Which of the following commands is the BEST for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

arping

C.

telnet

D.

ping

Question 64

What is the proper CLISH syntax to configure a default route via 192.168.255.1 in GAiA?

Options:

A.

set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

B.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway logical ethl on

C.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

D.

set static-route nexthop default gateway logical 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

Question 65

What firewall kernel table stores information about port allocations for Hide NAT connections?

Options:

A.

NAT_dst_any_list

B.

NAT_alloc

C.

NAT_src_any_list

D.

fwx_alloc

Question 66

Fill in the blank.

You can set Acceleration to ON or OFF using command syntax _____.

Options:

Question 67

What does the command vpn crl_zap do?

Options:

A.

Nothing, it is not a valid command

B.

Erases all CRL’s from the gateway cache

C.

Erases VPN certificates from cache

D.

Erases CRL’s from the management server cache

Question 68

Frank is concerned with performance and wants to configure the affinities settings. His gateway does not have the Performance pack running. What would Frank need to perform in order configure those settings?

Options:

A.

Edit affinity.conf and change the settings

B.

Run fw affinity and change the settings

C.

Edit $FWDIR/conf/fwaffinity.conf and change the settings

D.

Run sim affinity and change the settings

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT an internal/native Check Point command?

Options:

A.

fwaccel on

B.

fw ctl debug

C.

tcpdump

D.

cphaprob

Question 70

A Threat Prevention profile is a set of configurations based on the following. Select the right answer.

Options:

A.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings.

B.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings.

C.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings.

D.

Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings

Question 71

What is the router command to save your OSPF configuration?

Options:

A.

save memory

B.

write config

C.

save

D.

write mem

Question 72

To change the default port of the Management Portal:

Options:

A.

Edit the masters. conf file on the Portal server.

B.

Modify the file cp_httpd_admin .conf.

C.

Run sysconfig and change the management interface

D.

Re-initialize SIC

Question 73

You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules:

an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10.

The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps. and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action properties. If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.

B.

The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.

C.

50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule.

D.

Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.

Question 74

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on Secure Platform Pro?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways.

B.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways.

C.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway.

D.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways.

Question 75

In ClusterXL, _______ is defined by default as a critical device.

Options:

A.

fw.d

B.

protect.exe

C.

PROT_SRV.EXE

D.

Filter

Question 76

SmartWorkflow has been enabled with the following configuration:

If a security administrator opens a new session and after making changes to policy, submits the session for approval will be displayed as:

Options:

A.

Approved

B.

In progress

C.

Not Approved

D.

Awaiting Approval

Question 77

In CoreXL, what process is responsible for processing incoming traffic from the network interfaces, securely accelerating authorized packets, and distributing non-accelerated packets among kernel instances?

Options:

A.

NAD (Network Accelerator Daemon)

B.

SND (Secure Network Distributor)

C.

SSD (Secure System Distributor)

D.

SNP (System Networking Process)

Question 78

If traffic requires preferential treatment by other routers on the network, in addition to the QoS module, which Check Point QoS feature should be used?

Options:

A.

Guarantees

B.

Differentiated Services

C.

Weighted Fair Queuing

D.

Low Latency Queuing

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT a restriction for connection template generation?

Options:

A.

SYN Defender

B.

ISN Spoofing

C.

UDP services with no protocol type or source port mentioned in advanced properties

D.

VPN Connections

Question 80

You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment.

For your cluster, you plan to use three machines with the following configurations:

Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?

Options:

A.

No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Server.

B.

No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster members.

C.

Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.

D.

No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.

Question 81

In R71, how would you define a rule to block all traffic sent to or from Germany?

Options:

A.

This action is not possible.

B.

Create a policy rule with destination being a custom dynamic object representing Germany and action block. You must also create a rule in the opposite direction.

C.

Create a country specific policy within IPS Geo Protections with Germany as the country, block as the action, and from and to country for direction.

D.

Go to Policy / Global Properties / Geographical Protection Enforcement and add Germany to the blocked countries list.

Question 82

A Fast Path Upgrade of a cluster:

Options:

A.

Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.

B.

Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.

C.

Is not a valid upgrade method in R76.

D.

Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R75 to R76).

Question 83

To backup all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)?

Options:

A.

$RTDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events

B.

$RTDIR/events_db

C.

$RTDIR/distrib and $FWDIR/events_db

D.

$RTDIR/distrib

Question 84

Which external user authentication protocols are supported in SSL VPN?

Options:

A.

LDAP, Active Directory, SecurID

B.

DAP, SecurID, Check Point Password, OS Password, RADIUS, TACACS

C.

LDAP, RADIUS, Active Directory, SecurID

D.

LDAP, RADIUS, TACACS, SecurID

Question 85

Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports? By enabling:

Options:

A.

Malware Scan protection

B.

Sweep Scan protection

C.

Host Port Scan

D.

Malicious Code Protector

Question 86

Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw printver

D.

cpstat -gw

Question 87

Before upgrading SecurePlatform, you should create a backup.

To save time, many administrators use the command backup.

This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration.

An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration.

The Check Point configuration has not been changed.

Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?

Options:

A.

The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).

B.

The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the SecurePlatform boot menu.

C.

The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D.

A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.

Question 88

Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway to determine if the Web servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable.

You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab, and installed the Security Policy.

What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.

B.

Check the Products / Web Server box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.

C.

Add Port (TCP 443) as an additional port on the Web Server tab for the host node.

D.

The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false- positive.

Question 89

Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currently installed on a firewall module?

Options:

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

fw ver

D.

cpstat fwd

Question 90

The Security Gateway is installed on SecurePlatform R77. The default port for the Web User Interface is ____________.

Options:

A.

TCP 443

B.

TCP 4433

C.

TCP 18211

D.

TCP 257

Question 91

Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

From the Internet

B.

Through all interfaces

C.

Through internal interfaces

D.

Through the Firewall policy

Question 92

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

pdp and lad

B.

pdp and pdp-11

C.

pep and lad

D.

pdp and pep

Question 93

In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?

Options:

A.

sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP.

B.

sglondon_2 because sglondon_1 has highest IP.

C.

sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot.

D.

sglondon_2 because it has highest priority.

Question 94

If using AD Query for seamless identity data reception from Microsoft Active Directory (AD), which of the following methods is NOT Check Point recommended?

Options:

A.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

B.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

C.

Leveraging identity in Internet application control

D.

Identity-based auditing and logging

Question 95

Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Group Policy

C.

Identity Agent

D.

Captive Portal

Question 96

When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?

Options:

A.

For deployment of Identity Agents

B.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

C.

Leveraging identity in Internet application control

D.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

Question 97

Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?

Options:

A.

Leveraging machine name or identity

B.

When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial

C.

Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

D.

Protecting highly sensitive servers

Question 98

MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?

Options:

A.

You must run an ADquery for every domain.

B.

Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.

C.

Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.

D.

Only Captive Portal can be used.

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Total 754 questions