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Total 188 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level CTFL 4.0 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Question 2

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

Question 3

After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive. Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?

Options:

A.

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.

B.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

C.

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.

D.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

Question 4

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 5

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question 6

As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:

[I]. Test environment

[ii]. Expected result

[iii]. Actual result.

[IV] Test level.

[V]. Root cause.

Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?

Options:

A.

[l] and [IV]

B.

[ii] and [III].

C.

[ii], [iii] and [v]

D.

[ii], [IV] and [V].

Question 7

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

Question 8

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the involvement of testers in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Testers should contribute to all activities in the SDLC and participate in design discussions.

B.

Testers should be involved from the beginning of the SDLC to increase understanding of design decisions and detect defects early.

C.

Testers should only be involved during the testing phase.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential; developers find it difficult to be objective.

Question 10

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

Options:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

Question 11

Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?

Options:

A.

Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests

B.

Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests

C.

Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project

D.

Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing

Question 12

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Options:

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

Question 13

Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

B.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

C.

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

D.

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

Question 14

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique

Options:

A.

Where a developer and a tester work together on the same workstation while the developer actively writes code, the tester explores the code to find defects.

B.

That can be organised into sessions guided by test charters outlining test objectives that will guide the testers' exploration

C.

Where a team of testers explores all possible test techniques in order to determine the most suitable combination of these techniques to apply for a test project.

D.

That aims at finding defects by designing tests that exercise all possible combinations of input values and preconditions

Question 15

Which of the following statements about traceability is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, makes it possible to determine which test basis items have been covered by the executed test cases.

B.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables experience-based test techniques to be applied

C.

Traceability between test basis items and the test cases designed to cover them, enables identification of which test cases will be affected by changes to the test basis items.

D.

Traceability can be established and maintained through all the test documentation for a given test level, such as from test conditions through test cases to test scripts.

Question 16

Which one of the following statements relating to the benefits of static testing is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

Static testing enables early detection of defects before dynamic testing is performed.

B.

Static testing reduces testing costs and time.

C.

Static testing increases development costs and time.

D.

Static testing identifies defects which are not easily found by dynamic testing.

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure

B.

A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

C.

Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions

D.

Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels

Question 18

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

Question 19

Consider the followingiteration planning taskswhere a tester can provide value:

    Break down user stories into tasks (particularly testing tasks)

    Estimate test effort for all testing tasks

    Identify and refine functional and non-functional aspects of the test object

Which ONE of the following tasks should be ADDED to the above list?

Options:

A.

Determining the test strategy

B.

Participating in the detailed risk analysis of user stories and determining their testability

C.

Planning the testing for the release

D.

Writing testable user stories and acceptance criteria

Question 20

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

Question 21

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

Question 22

In which one of the following test techniques are test cases derived from the analysis of the software architecture?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques.

B.

Experience-based test techniques.

C.

Checklist-based test techniques.

D.

White-box test techniques.

Question 23

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

Question 24

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

Question 25

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

B.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

C.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

D.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

Question 26

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Options:

A.

Can't be determined

B.

Covering all transitions at least once

C.

Covering only start and end states

D.

Covering all states at least once

Question 27

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

Question 28

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 29

The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted

B.

Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column

C.

Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column

D.

Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column

Question 30

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 31

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describesstatement testing?

Options:

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

Question 32

A typical objective of testing is to

Options:

A.

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Question 33

For each of the test cases to be executed, the following table specifies the priority order and dependencies on other test cases

Which of the following test execution schedules is compatible with the logical dependencies and allows executing the test cases in priority order?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC5. TC1

B.

TC4, TC6, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1

C.

TC3, TC5, TC6, TC1, TC4, TC3

D.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC6, TC1, TC5

Question 34

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

Question 35

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

Question 36

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

Question 37

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2.C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3.B2. C1. D4

Question 38

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which acollective authorship processgenerates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

Question 39

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.

Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?

Options:

A.

Identification of the test object and test environment

B.

A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported

C.

Description of the structure of the test team

D.

Expected results and actual results

Question 40

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

Question 41

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

Question 42

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes a key characteristic of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

Performing non-functional testing starting at the system test level.

B.

Conducting non-functional testing exclusively at the acceptance test level.

C.

Limiting non-functional testing to security testing and performance testing only.

D.

Ensuring non-functional testing focuses only on user experience and usability.

Question 43

Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i and iv

B.

i and ii

C.

i and iii

D.

iii and iv

Question 44

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

Question 45

Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.

Which of the following examples demonstrates this?

Options:

A.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.

B.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.

C.

Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.

D.

Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.

Question 46

The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, "R2->R3" means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ”P" i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.

Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority

Options:

A.

R2. R1, R3. R4. R5, R6. R7, R8.

B.

R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, R7, R8.

C.

R2, R4. R8, R5, R1, R6, R3, R7.

D.

. R2, R1,R3,R7,R6,R5,R4,R8.

Question 47

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

Question 48

You are an experienced tester on a project with incomplete requirements and under pressure to deploy.

What type of testing should you do?

Options:

A.

Decision-based testing.

B.

Checklist-based testing.

C.

Error guessing.

D.

Exploratory testing.

Question 49

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7.

B.

6.

C.

5.

D.

3.

Question 50

Which ONE of the following statements BEST applies tochecklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

Checklists should contain general guidelines to ensure that all aspects of the software are covered.

B.

Checklists should contain specific test conditions that can be individually and directly checked.

C.

Checklists should primarily consist of automated test cases to maximize efficiency.

D.

Checklists should be used exclusively for functional testing, as they are unsuitable for non-functional testing.

Question 51

Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following optionsorganizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

Options:

A.

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

B.

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

C.

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

D.

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Question 52

Which ONE of the following options isNOTa benefit oftest automation?

Options:

A.

Reduced test execution times

B.

More objective assessment

C.

Prevention of simple human errors

D.

Eliminating completely the need for manual testing

Question 53

Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Options:

A.

Inspection.

B.

Walkthrough.

C.

Technical review.

D.

Informal review.

Question 54

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

Question 55

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

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