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Welding Inspection and Metallurgy Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When radiographic examination is used for welder qualification utilizing the GMAW-S process, the minimum length of the test coupon to be examined is:

Options:

A.

Radiographic examination is not allowed.

B.

The entire weld circumference for pipe coupon.

C.

36 in. for welder operator qualification.

D.

6 in. for welder qualification.

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Question 2

To reduce the possibility of cracking, which of the following maximum hardness levels is required for weldments in wet H2S service?

Options:

A.

HRC 20

B.

HRC 22

C.

HRC 25

D.

HRC 32

Question 3

Hardenability of a steel can be an indirect indicator of:

Options:

A.

Weldability

B.

Toughness

C.

Strength

D.

Cooling rate

Question 4

When welding nickel alloys, it is important that:

Options:

A.

The bevel angle be wide enough to allow oscillation of welding torch.

B.

The cooling rate be controlled in order to prevent rapid cooling.

C.

Preheating is always performed to prevent hot cracking.

D.

A wide face and thinner bevel be used.

Question 5

To avoid burn through during in-service welding on thinner wall equipment, it is generally recommended to:

Options:

A.

Use larger diameter electrodes.

B.

Minimize weaving the bead.

C.

Maximize weaving the bead.

D.

Use high heat input.

Question 6

To reduce exposure to moisture of low-hydrogen electrodes after they have been removed from the manufacturer’s packaging, they should be stored:

Options:

A.

Under low humidity conditions.

B.

In warm holding ovens.

C.

In sealed plastic containers.

D.

In tightly sealed ovens.

Question 7

When performing a carbon steel to carbon steel hot tap where the CE of one of the metals is greater than 0.42%, which of the following electrodes should be used?

Options:

A.

E7048-H4

B.

E7048

C.

E7018-A1

D.

E7018

Question 8

Mechanical tests are required to qualify a welding procedure to document that the properties of the weldment meet which of the following?

Options:

A.

The expected load for which the weld will be subject.

B.

The minimum established acceptance criteria.

C.

The requirements as established in ASME Section XI.

D.

The same criteria required for welder qualification.

Question 9

For GMAW welding, the last number of the electrode identifies the:

Options:

A.

Chemical composition.

B.

Strength of the electrode.

C.

Coating characteristics.

D.

Operating characteristics.

Question 10

General awareness of metallurgy is important to the welding inspector because:

Options:

A.

Welding processes can affect both mechanical and corrosion properties of a weldment.

B.

The crystalline structure of base metals affects the resulting structure of the weld.

C.

Physical properties of the final weldment can be significantly affected by preheat and postweld heat treatment (PWHT).

D.

A thorough knowledge of weld metal structures is necessary to understand weldability.

Question 11

The WPS gives the welder specific guidelines to:

Options:

A.

Set the machine amperage, voltage, and travel speed.

B.

Confirm the project heat input is followed during welding.

C.

Successfully complete production welds.

D.

Make imperfection/defect-free welds.

Question 12

Which of the following can result from residual magnetism left in a partially completed weld?

Options:

A.

Excessive distortion

B.

Tendency of weld pool to be sluggish

C.

Deflection of the weld arc

D.

Solidification cracking

Question 13

The carbon equivalent formula indicates:

Options:

A.

Whether postweld heat treatment (PWHT) will be needed.

B.

Whether preheat will be needed.

C.

The theoretical carbon content of a steel.

D.

The weldability of a steel, based on carbon content.

Question 14

What is the purpose of a PQR?

Options:

A.

To provide direction to the welder making production welds.

B.

To establish the properties of the weldment.

C.

To document that a welder has correctly followed a WPS.

D.

To establish a welder's capability to make a quality weld.

Question 15

A crack with its major axis oriented approximately perpendicular to the weld axis is called a:

Options:

A.

Lamellar crack.

B.

Non-directional crack.

C.

Transverse crack.

D.

Perpendicular crack.

Question 16

According to the PQR 8025, does the thickness range qualified concur with the thickness range as stated on the WPS 802?

Options:

A.

Yes, but only for thicknesses greater than .280"

B.

No, the material thickness on the PQR should be .375"

C.

Yes, the PQR qualifies the ranges as stated on the WPS

D.

No, the PQR thickness should have been .560"

Question 17

What is the Brinell hardness limit value for 1-1/4 Cr -1/2 Mo steel in refining service?

Options:

A.

200

B.

215

C.

225

D.

241

Question 18

In hardness testing of carbon steel weldment specimens, there is an approximate relationship between hardness and:

Options:

A.

Toughness

B.

Tensile strength

C.

Ductility

D.

Yield strength

Question 19

Heating a round bar to an elevated temperature and then quenching one end is a test method to determine:

Options:

A.

Hardenability.

B.

Temper embrittlement.

C.

Heat treatability.

D.

Thermal conductivity.

Question 20

Prior to any welding, inspectors should review the:

Options:

A.

WPQ to verify that the welder is qualified to perform the welding, given its position and process.

B.

WPQ to verify that the specification in use is correct.

C.

PQR to verify that the welder is qualified to perform the welding, given its position and process.

D.

WPS to verify that the welder is qualified to perform the welding, given its position and process.

Question 21

What is the liquid flow rate range that should be maintained in piping to be hot tapped?

Options:

A.

0.05 - 2.7 ft./sec (0.015 - 0.82 m/sec)

B.

1.3 - 4.0 ft./sec (0.40 - 1.20 m/sec)

C.

2.3 - 3.3 ft./sec (0.70 - 1.00 m/sec)

D.

4.1 - 5.5 ft./sec (1.25 - 1.68 m/sec)

Question 22

One of the main differences between welding nickel alloys and austenitic stainless steels is that with nickel alloys:

Options:

A.

Interpass temperature control is not needed.

B.

There is less susceptibility to cracking from contaminants.

C.

There is less susceptibility to lack of fusion.

D.

The weld pool tends to be sluggish.

Question 23

Which source of radiation is normally used for performing field radiography on steel with a 4-in. thickness?

Options:

A.

Selenium 75

B.

Cobalt 60

C.

Iridium 192

D.

X-ray machine

Question 24

A welding engineer or inspector should be notified when a weld has failed a weld quality test more than how many times in order to help determine the cause of the test failure?

Options:

A.

ONCE

B.

TWICE

C.

THREE TIMES

D.

FOUR TIMES

Question 25

For SMAW welding, the last number of the electrode identification identifies:

Options:

A.

Chemical composition.

B.

Electrode operating characteristics.

C.

Welding position.

D.

Coating operating characteristics.

Question 26

Base metals are assigned P-numbers by the ASME Code, Section IX to reduce the number of:

Options:

A.

Required welding procedure specifications.

B.

Required welding procedure qualifications.

C.

Required procedure and performance qualifications.

D.

Required mechanical tests.

Question 27

When verifying that the filler metal selection is appropriate for the base metal being welded, an inspector should consider:

Options:

A.

Chemical composition.

B.

Tensile strength to be higher than the base metal.

C.

Acceptability of physical properties.

D.

Need for postweld heat treatment (PWHT).

Question 28

For design purposes, the maximum usefulness of a weldment under test is based upon the:

Options:

A.

Yield strength.

B.

Hardness.

C.

Ultimate tensile strength.

D.

Toughness.

Question 29

A-number groupings are based upon the:

Options:

A.

Chemical composition of the deposited weld metal.

B.

Comparable base metal ultimate strength values.

C.

Weldability characteristics of the metal.

D.

Type and strength of base metal.

Question 30

Exposed film that allows 1% of the incident light to pass through has a film density of:

Options:

A.

1.0

B.

2.0

C.

3.0

D.

4.0

Question 31

Rules for qualifying welding operators using radiography on a production weld require what minimum weld length to be examined?

Options:

A.

6 in. (150 mm)

B.

12 in. (300 mm)

C.

24 in.(600 mm)

D.

36 in. (900 mm)

Question 32

What is the "area of interest" on a weld radiograph?

Options:

A.

The entire radiograph minus 2 in. (50.8 mm) from the edges

B.

Only the area of contrasting density

C.

The specific portion of a radiograph that needs to be evaluated

D.

The portion that is less than 3t from the center of the radiograph, where t is the thickness of the weld

Question 33

Which of the following determines the necessity for preheat and postweld heat treatment?

Options:

A.

The percentage of carbon that will be in the completed weld

B.

The as-rolled hardness of the welding components

C.

The carbon equivalent of the steel

D.

The rate of cooling after the welding is completed

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Total 110 questions