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Free and Premium ACSM 030-444 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 160 questions

ACSM Certified Clinical Exercise Physiologist Questions and Answers

Question 1

Differentiation between supraventricular and ventricular rhythm is made on the basis of the

Options:

A.

Duration (width) of the QRS complex and the presence or absence of P waves.

B.

Appearance of the ST segment.

C.

Amplitude of the U wave.

D.

Duration of the PR interval.

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Question 2

What is the best way that an administrator can educate the fitness staff?

Options:

A.

Voicing his or her opinion.

B.

Joining fitness organizations, and subscribing to fitness journals.

C.

Buying fitness videos.

D.

Reading the newspaper.

Question 3

In the ECG strip shown below, which arrhythmia is indicated?

Options:

A.

Atrial flutter.

B.

Atrial fibrillation.

C.

Premature atrial contractions.

D.

Atrial tachycardia.

Question 4

What is the relative Y02 of running on a treadmill at 6.5 mph and a 0% grade?

Options:

A.

34.84 mL . kg-1. min-1

B.

34.48 mL . kg-1. min-1

C.

38.34 mL . kg-1. min-1

D.

43.83 mL . kg-1. min-1

Question 5

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) is a systematic process of program

evaluation that involves all of the following steps EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Data analysis.

B.

Goals assessment.

C.

Outcomes assessment.

D.

Budget assessment.

Question 6

In the ECG strip shown below, what disorder is indicated?

Options:

A.

Acute pericarditis.

B.

Inferior MI.

C.

Posterior MI.

D.

Anterior MI.

(From Goldberger AL: Clinical Electrocardiography: A Simplified Approach, 6th ed. St.

Louis, Mosby, 1999, p 91.)

Question 7

Slow conduction in the A V node is associated with

Options:

A.

Prolonged PR interval.

B.

Prolonged QRS interval.

C.

Shortened QT interval.

D.

Elevated ST segment.

Question 8

The manager's role in staff education is

Options:

A.

Valuable, because it looks good to the owners.

B.

To create many opportunities for educating the staff.

C.

To let the staff handle their own education but also to encourage it.

D.

Not very valuable, because member retention and sales are the key to any program.

Question 9

In the ECG strip sho'ATI1 below, what abnormalities are indicated?

Options:

A.

Left atrial enlargement and LVH.

B.

Right atrial enlargement and right ventricular hypertrophy.

C.

Left anterior fascicular block and left posterior h,scicular block.

D.

Subendocardial ischemia and infarction

Avr V1 V4

Avl V2 V5

Avf V3 V6

Question 10

Which of the following elements is NOT part of an emergency plan for a clinical exercise program?

Options:

A.

Annual practice sessions involving all staff.

B.

Emergency plan that constantly refers to national established guidelines (e.g., ACLS) without addressing unique features of the program.

C.

Emergency drills carried out on a regular basis and documented.

D.

Scenarios developed to increase the applicability of the emergency plan practice

sessions.

Question 11

Budgets are designed to

Options:

A.

Make management happy.

B.

Determine if a program is viable.

C.

Save money.

D.

Teach managers about cost analysis.

Question 12

Staff certification is

Options:

A.

Not important, because members do not care.

B.

Important, primarily because it adds spice to marketing materials.

C.

Not a good idea, because certified staff will increase your payroll.

D.

Important, primarily because it adds a standard of knowledge and credibility to your facility.

Question 13

Tall, positive T waves may be caused to all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Hyperacute phase of MI.

B.

LVH.

C.

Acute pericarditis.

D.

Hypocalcemia.

Question 14

A 55-kilogram woman trains on a cycle ergometer by pedaling at 60 rpm against a resistance of 1.5 kiloponds. What is her absolute Yo2?

Options:

A.

1.36 L . min-1

B.

2.47 L . min-1

C.

3.62 L . min-1

D.

3600 mL . min-1

Question 15

What is the MET equivalent to level walking on a treadmill at 3.0 mph?

Options:

A.

5.59 MET.

B.

3.30 MET.

C.

2.30 MET.

D.

3.02 MET.

Question 16

What should the manager's involvement be in developing fitness programs?

Options:

A.

The manager should maintain a hands-off approach.

B.

The manager should be involved only in the budgeting and final approval.

C.

The manager should be the only person involved in program development.

D.

The manager should be active as a program developer as well as a resource,

supporter, and critic for programs developed by other staff.

Question 17

Some of the duties in supervising a fitness staff include scheduling, implementing the

policies and procedures, and

Options:

A.

Cleaning the equipment.

B.

Emergency procedures and evaluations.

C.

Marketing and promotions.

D.

Managing the fitness billing.

Question 18

Which one of the following statements concerning a needs assessment is NOT true?

Options:

A.

The needs and/or program assessment is a useful tool for gathering data and

support for program implementation.

B.

The needs and/or program assessment often must be a creative tool developed inhouse

to meet the program's specific needs.

C.

Given that the needs assessment may be developed in-house without the benefit

of external validity, generalizing the results may be difficult.

D.

Program planning is an essential step before needs assessment can be performed.

Question 19

A 70-kg client is running on a treadmill at 5 mph and a 5% grade. What is his caloric expenditure rate?

Options:

A.

12.7 kcal . min-1

B.

1.271 kcal . min-1

C.

3.633 kcal . min -1

D.

36.33 kcal . min -1

Question 20

Digitalis effect refers to

Options:

A.

Scooped-out depression of the ST segment produced by digitalis.

B.

Elevation of the PR interval produced by digitalis.

C.

Shortening of the QT interval produced by digitalis.

D.

Prolongation of the QRS complex produced by digitalis.

Question 21

What do budgets determine?

Options:

A.

Fitness equipment costs.

B.

If a company is making or losing money.

C.

Viability, identification of problems, and a plan for the future of a program.

D.

Assets and liabilities of the financial plan.

Question 22

One important aspect of staff competency is ensuring that staff members are well trained and kept up to date. Which of the following organizations has recently launched the Registry for Clinical Exercise Physiologists?

Options:

A.

AACVPR.

B.

American College of Physicians.

C.

American Heart Association.

D.

ACSM.

Question 23

In atrial flutter, the stimulation rate is approximately

Options:

A.

75 bpm

B.

125 bpm

C.

200 bpm

D.

300 bpm

Question 24

How many calories will a 110-pound woman expend if she pedals on a Monark cycle ergometer at 50 rpm against a resistance of 2.5 kiloponds for 60 minutes?

Options:

A.

12.87 calories.

B.

31.28 calories.

C.

510 calories.

D.

3,500 calories.

Question 25

The eating habits of an athlete involved in long distance running should differ from those of a sedentary individual of the same body weight in what way?

Options:

A.

The athlete should reduce fat intake to 10% of total calories.

B.

The athlete should increase protein intake to threefold the RDA.

C.

The athlete should have a greater intake of grains, fruits, vegetables, and lean sources of protein.

D.

There should be no change in calories.

Question 26

Which of the following statements true regarding exercise leadership is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The exercise leader should be fit enough to exercise with any of his or her participants.

B.

Most people are not bored by exercise and can easily find time to participate in an exercise program.

C.

The exercise leader should adjust the exercise intensity based on individual differences in fitness.

D.

Periodic fitness assessment may provide evidence of improvement in fitness for some participants.

Question 27

Which eating disorder is marked by an overwhelming fear of becoming fat, a distorted body image, and extreme restrictive eating?

Options:

A.

Bulimia.

B.

Anorexia nervosa.

C.

Chronic dieting.

D.

Yo-yo dieting.

Question 28

Which of the following diseases is NOT typically associated with obesity?

Options:

A.

Diabetes.

B.

Skin cancer.

C.

Coronary artery disease.

D.

Colon cancer.

Question 29

The MINIMAL duration of exercise necessary to achieve improvements in health for deconditioned individuals is

Options:

A.

20 minutes continuously.

B.

30 minutes continuously.

C.

Multiple sessions of more than 10 minutes in duration throughout the day.

D.

Two sessions of 20 minutes throughout the day.

Question 30

Women are likely to be deficient in both calcium and iron, because

Options:

A.

They tend to consume less overall energy than men.

B.

They tend to consume less dairy products.

C.

They tend to consume less protein from meat sources.

D.

All of the above.

Question 31

Athletes who exercise in the heat and humidity have a special need for fluid replacement.

Current guidelines suggest that athletes should

Options:

A.

Consume 16 to 24 fluid ounces of water for every pound of weight lost.

B.

Drink nothing but alcoholic beverages after engaging in exercise.

C.

Avoid drinking water after exercise because of the danger of cramps.

D.

Eat salt tablets with every meal during the hot summer months.

Question 32

To lose one pound (=0.5 kg) of body fat, how much of an energy deficit must be created

by diet and or physical activity?

Options:

A.

2,000 kcal.

B.

2,500 kcal.

C.

3,000 kcal.

D.

3,500 kcal.

Question 33

A specific benefit of regular exercise for patients with angina is

Options:

A.

Improved ischemic threshold at which angina symptoms occur.

B.

Increased myocardial oxygen demand at the same submaximallevels.

C.

Eradication of all symptoms.

D.

Elevation of BP.

Question 34

Fiber is a type of carbohydrate that is not digestible (e.g., it will pass through the digestive system without being absorbed). The NCEP ATPIII guidelines recommend that soluble (viscous) fiber be included in the diet for the prevention and treatment of elevated blood lipid concentrations. Sources of soluble (viscous) fibers include

Options:

A.

Fruits, beans, and oats.

B.

Meat and dairy foods.

C.

Wheat bran and whole wheat products.

D.

All of the above.

Question 35

The BMI is calculated using which of the following formulas?

Options:

A.

Weight/hip circumference.

B.

Weight/height2.

C.

Height/weight2.

D.

Hip circumference/height.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about injury reporting is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

A process for injury reporting, backed up with a form, should be developed.

B.

The process to be used and the accompanying forms must be part of the P&P manual.

C.

Injury reporting forms must be kept under lock and key, just like data records.

D.

A physician should sign every injury report form that is filed.

Question 37

Which of the following foods would be in the group recommended to comprise most of the daily energy intake according to the Food Guide Pyramid?

Options:

A.

Oranges.

B.

Yogurt.

C.

Pasta.

D.

Olive oil.

Question 38

Which energy source represents the largest potential energy store in the body?

Options:

A.

Fat.

B.

Blood glucose.

C.

Muscle glycogen.

D.

Protein.

Question 39

Which of the following is a method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive concentric contraction?

Options:

A.

Super sets.

B.

Split routines.

C.

Plyometrics.

D.

Periodization.

Question 40

When counseling a patient with metabolic syndrome, your emphasis should be on addressing underlying causes of the syndrome, such as

Options:

A.

Obesity and physical inactivity.

B.

Excessive carbohydrate intake.

C.

Elevated LDL-C concentration.

D.

Lack of muscular strength.

Question 41

Which of the following statements about confidentiality is NOT true?

Options:

A.

All records must be kept by the program director/manager under lock and key.

B.

Data must be available to all individuals who need to see it.

C.

Data should be kept on file for at least 1 year before being discarded.

D.

Sensitive information (e.g., participant's name) needs to be protected.

Question 42

What is an appropriate initial weight loss goal for an obese individual desiring weight reduction?

Options:

A.

10%initial body weight in first 6 months.

B.

20 pounds in 2 months.

C.

5 pounds per week for the first 6 weeks, then weight maintenance.

D.

BMI of less than 18.5.

Question 43

Which of the following issues would you include in discharge education instructions for a client with congestive heart failure to avoid potential emergency situations related to this condition at home?

Options:

A.

Record body weight daily, and report weight gains to a physician.

B.

Note signs and symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, intolerance to activities of daily living), and report them to a physician.

C.

Do not palpate the pulse during daily activities or periods of light- headedness, because an irregular pulse is normal and occurs at various times during the day.

D.

Both A and B.

Question 44

What common medication taken by clients with end-stage renal disease requires careful management for those undergoing hemodialysis?

Options:

A.

Antihypertensive medication.

B.

Lithium.

C.

Cholestyramine.

D.

Cromolyn sodium.

Question 45

In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends

Options:

A.

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

B.

Ballistic stretching.

C.

The plough and hurdler's stretches.

D.

Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.

Question 46

Which of the following medical conditions is NOT part of the female athlete triad?

Options:

A.

Disordered eating.

B.

Osteoporosis.

C.

Amenorrhea.

D.

Anemia.

Question 47

Which of the following is an appropriate exercise for clients with diabetes and loss of protective sention in the extremities?

Options:

A.

Prolonged walking.

B.

Jogging.

C.

Step-class exercise.

D.

Swimming.

Question 48

Which of the following waist circumference measurements indicates abdominal obesity?

Options:

A.

0.98.

B.

>29.9

C.

43 inches

D.

All of the above.

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Total 160 questions