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ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

Options:

A.

to know when a specific test has finished its execution

B.

to ensure that the test case specification is complete

C.

to set the criteria used in generating test inputs

D.

to determine when to stop testing

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Question 2

Which of the following is the odd one out..?

Options:

A.

White box

B.

Glass box

C.

Structural

D.

Functional

Question 3

When is testing complete?

Options:

A.

When time and budget are exhausted.

B.

When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.

C.

When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.

D.

When every data combination has been exercised successfully.

Question 4

Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

The system will enable users to buy books.

B.

The system will allow users to return books.

C.

The system will ensure security of the customer details.

D.

The system will allow up to 100 users to log in at the same time.

Question 5

Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase:

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and execution

B.

Test Analysis and Design

C.

Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting

D.

Test Closure Activities

Question 6

Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?

Options:

A.

Top down

B.

Big-bang

C.

Bottom up

D.

Functional incrementation.

Question 7

Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Options:

A.

Test Analysis and Design

B.

Test Implementation and execution

C.

Test Closure Activities

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 8

The following statements relate to activities that are part of the fundamental test process.

i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.

ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.

iii. Designing the test environment set-up.

iv. Developing and prioritizing test cases.

v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.

Which statement below is TRUE?

Options:

A.

(i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

B.

(i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

C.

(i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.

D.

(i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii) and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.

Question 9

What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Options:

A.

The types of test techniques to be employed.

B.

The total tests needed to provide 100 per cent coverage.

C.

An estimation of the total cost of testing.

D.

Only that test execution is effective at reducing risk.

Question 10

Independent Verification & Validation is:

Options:

A.

Done by the Developer

B.

Done by the Test Engineers

C.

Done By Management

D.

Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence

Question 11

Which of the following is true of iterative development?

Options:

A.

It uses fully defined specifications from the start.

B.

It involves the users in the testing throughout.

C.

Changes to the system do not need to be formally recorded.

D.

It is not suitable for developing websites.

Question 12

Which option is part of the ‘implementation and execution’ area of the fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Developing the tests.

B.

Comparing actual and expected results.

C.

Writing a test summary.

D.

Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.

Question 13

Testing should be stopped when:

Options:

A.

All the planned tests have been run

B.

Time has run out

C.

All faults have been fixed correctly

D.

Both A and C

E.

It depends on the risks for the system being tested

Question 14

Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

Options:

A.

to ensure that all of the small components are tested

B.

to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks

C.

to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team

D.

to specify how the software should be divided into components

E.

to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once

Question 15

A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of failure = 20%; impact value = £100,000

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%; impact value = £150,000

C.

Likelihood of failure = 1%; impact value = £500,000

D.

Likelihood of failure = 2%; impact value = £200,000

Question 16

Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.

B.

The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards.

C.

Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system.

D.

Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.

Question 17

Non-functional system testing includes:

Options:

A.

Testing to see where the system does not function properly

B.

Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability

C.

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action

D.

Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function

E.

Testing for functions that should not exist

Question 18

Which of the following is usually the test basis for integration testing?

Options:

A.

Program specification

B.

Functional specification

C.

Technical specification

D.

Requirement specification

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

Options:

A.

Status accounting of configuration items

B.

Auditing conformance to ISO9001

C.

Identification of test versions

D.

Record of changes to documentation over time

E.

Controlled library access

Question 20

Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication

ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix

iii. Early test design can find faults

iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements

v. Early test design takes more effort

Options:

A.

i, iii & iv are true. ii & v are false

B.

iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false

C.

iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false

D.

i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false

E.

i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Question 21

The cost of fixing a fault:

Options:

A.

Is not important

B.

Increases as we move the product towards live use

C.

Decreases as we move the product towards live use

D.

Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design

E.

Can never be determined

Question 22

Which of the following has the typical formal review activities in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Kick-off, review meeting, planning, follow-up.

B.

Kick-off, planning, review meeting, re-work.

C.

Planning, kick-off, individual preparation, review meeting.

D.

Planning, individual preparation, follow-up, re-work.

Question 23

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

Options:

A.

Correction of defects during the development phase.

B.

Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.

C.

Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.

D.

Integrating functions during the development of a new system.

Question 24

Which of the following is correct?

Debugging is:

Options:

A.

Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly.

B.

Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected.

C.

Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.

D.

Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.

Question 25

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions

B.

To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126

C.

To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions

D.

To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

Question 26

Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

Options:

A.

Variance from programming standards.

B.

A defect in middleware.

C.

Memory leaks.

D.

Regression defects.

Question 27

Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

Options:

A.

A, C and D and E are true; B is false.

B.

A, C and E are true; B and D are false.

C.

C and D are true; A, B and E are false.

D.

B and E are true; A, C and D are false.

Question 28

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

Question 29

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

Question 30

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

Question 31

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

Question 32

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 33

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 34

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

Question 35

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 36

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

Question 37

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

Question 38

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

Question 39

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

Question 40

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

Question 41

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

Question 42

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

Question 43

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Question 44

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system

B.

Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.

C.

Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in the system

D.

Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Question 45

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

Question 46

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 47

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Question 48

From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2]

a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software

b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers

c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing

d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Options:

A.

a and b.

B.

c and d.

C.

a and d.

D.

b and c.

Question 49

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

Question 50

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Question 51

Which of the following is a role of a formal review?[K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit

Given the following State Transition diagram, match the test cases below with the relevant set of state transitions.

(i)X-Z-V-W

(ii)W-Y-U-U

Options:

A.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

B.

(i) = S1 – S2 – S3 – S4 – S4 and (ii) = S2 –S4 – S4 – S4 – S2

C.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 – S2 – S2 and (ii) = S4 – S2 – S4 – S4 – S4

D.

(i) = S2 – S3 – S4 - S4 – S2 and (ii) = S2 –S3 – S4 –S4 – S4

Question 53

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 54

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Question 55

Your task is to compile a test execution schedule for the current release of software.

The system specification states the following logical dependencies:

• An admin user must create/amend/delete a standard user.

• A standard user is necessary to perform all other actions.

The test plan requires that re-tests must be performed first, followed by the highest priority tests. To save time, the test plan states that tests should be scheduled to create test data for the subsequent tests in the schedule.

The following test cases have been designed, with an indication of priority (1 being the highest priority) and whether the test has previously failed.

Which test execution schedule meets the test plan requirements and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

a, d, c, b, e

B.

a, c, b, d, e

C.

e, a, b, c, d

D.

e, a, d, c, b

Question 56

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

Question 57

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:

• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am

• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service

• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service

Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.

When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

0600, 1000, 1200

B.

1001, 1300, 2259

C.

0100, 0800, 2200

D.

2400, 1000, 2301

Question 58

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Options:

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

Question 59

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

Question 60

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

Options:

A.

The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B.

The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action

C.

The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring

D.

The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Question 61

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Question 62

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

Question 63

Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Options:

A.

To improve defect finding during reviews and testing

B.

To ensure that developers adhere to coding standards

C.

To limit communication between developers and testers

D.

To provide better metrics for the stakeholders

Question 64

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

Question 65

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

Question 66

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

Question 67

Your company is developing a system with complex business rules and many branches in the structure of its code components. You need to choose one black box technique and one white box technique for test case design.

Which one of the following offers the BEST choice?

Options:

A.

Statement testing and exploratory testing

B.

Decision testing and equivalence partitioning

C.

Decision testing and decision table testing

D.

Boundary value analysis and decision table testing

Question 68

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Options:

A.

Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B.

Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors

C.

Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests

D.

Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Question 69

The following Test Cases have been created for a simple web-based airline booking system.

Test Case 1: Search for an item Available Flights

Test Case 2: View selected item in My Flights

Test Case 3: Login to the system: Login is accepted

Test Case 4: Select an available flight: item added to My Flights

Test Case 5: Print confirmation receipt, then exit

Test Case 6: In My Flights, confirm details and book flight

Which of the following is the correct logical order for the test cases?

Options:

A.

6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

B.

3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6

C.

3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5

D.

3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5

Question 70

Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

Statement testing

D.

Error guessing

Question 71

You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.

What is the correct definition of this document?

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Test condition

C.

Test procedure specification

D.

Test case specification

Question 72

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Preventing defects from being introduced into the code

B.

Investigating and fixing defects in the software under test

C.

Gaining confidence that the system is fit-for-purpose

D.

Providing information for stakeholders’ decision making

Question 73

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

Question 74

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 75

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

Question 77

Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Options:

A.

Training developers to design good tests for the test team to execute

B.

Outsourcing test design and execution to a different company

C.

Having the company's independent test team design and execute the tests

D.

Minimising contact between testers and developers during test design to avoid bias

Question 78

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Question 79

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

Options:

A.

The version(s) of the software under test

B.

The test execution schedule

C.

Expected results and actual results

D.

Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Question 80

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

Question 81

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Implementation and Execution

B.

Test Planning and Control

C.

Evaluating Exit Criteria and Reporting

D.

Test Analysis and Design