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EMC D-ISM-FN-23 Dumps

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Total 189 questions

Dell Information Storage and Management Foundations 2023 Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 7 occurs as follows:

● Monday=4 PM to 11 PM

● Wednesday= 2 PM to 10 PM

● Friday= 5 AM to11 AM

What is the MTTR of Port 7?

Options:

A.

36 hours

B.

5 hours

C.

7 hours

D.

33 hours

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Question 2

An organization wants to deploy a VM storage migration solution into their data center environment.

What is the result of deploying this type of solution?

Options:

A.

Enables VMs to continue functioning when source data becomes unavailable

B.

Improves the application security of migrated VMs

C.

Enables efficient management of capacity across storage systems

D.

Reduces overall storage capacity requirements

Question 3

What is an impact of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Compromises user accounts and data to malicious insiders

B.

Hijacks privileges to compromise data security

C.

Prevents legitimate users from accessing IT resources or service

D.

Duplicates user credentials to compromise data security

Question 4

Which modern technology enables data to be securely collected and processed at point of creation to create new value?

Options:

A.

Private cloud

B.

Edge Computing

C.

Big Data

D.

AI/ML

Question 5

An organization is interested in a cloud service that provides middleware, development tools, and database management systems for application development and deployment.

Which cloud service model meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Software as a Service

B.

Infrastructure as a Service

C.

Platform as a Service

D.

Application as a Service

Question 6

Why is it important for organizations to store protect and manage their data?

Options:

A.

To eliminate complexity in managing the data center environment

B.

To meet the requirements of legal and data governance regulations

C.

To develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement

D.

To reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up

Question 7

Which data protection solution provides the ability to select a backup technology based on demand?

Options:

A.

Agent-Based backup

B.

Cloud-Based backup

C.

File-Based backup

D.

Image-Based backup

Question 8

In an SDS environment, which protocol supports the resource-oriented architecture for the development of scalable and lightweight web applications while adhering to a set of constraints?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

NFS

C.

CIFS

D.

REST

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

What type of Fibre Channel port does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

N_port

B.

F_port

C.

E_port

D.

NL_port

Question 10

An organization wants to protect data from accidental deletion, application crashes, data corruption, and disaster.

Which solution should the organization adopt?

Options:

A.

Storage tiering

B.

Thin provisioning

C.

Data archiving

D.

Data backup

Question 11

Which file system provides a streaming interface using the MapReduce framework?

Options:

A.

CIFS

B.

HDFS

C.

NFS

D.

NTFS

Question 12

Which Dell EMC product is designed to host both file and object data?

Options:

A.

PowerEdge

B.

PowerScale

C.

PowerVault

D.

Cloud Tiering Appliance

Question 13

Which performance feature does an intelligent storage system provide?

Options:

A.

Automated storage tiering

B.

RAID 4 data protection

C.

End-to-end NVMe/IB storage connectivity

D.

End-to-end SAS storage connectivity

Question 14

Which network file sharing protocol provides cloud-based file sharing through a REST API interface?

Options:

A.

S3

B.

HDFS

C.

ZFS

D.

FTP

Question 15

Why is it important for organizations lo deploy business continuity solutions in their data center environment?

Options:

A.

Avoid security risks that destroy the business data

B.

Employ compliance requirements for data protection

C.

Eliminate the time required for maintenance of IT resources in the data center

D.

Reduce the cost of protecting data within and outside data centers

Question 16

Which statement is true regarding virtual provisioning?

Options:

A.

Shared and Thin LUNS can be expanded rapidly with only minor disruptions

B.

Multiple shared storage pools can be created while each pool must be allocated to a unique thin LUN

C.

Virtual provisioning enables more efficient allocation of storage to compute systems

D.

Virtual provisioning prevents issues that arise from oversubscription

Question 17

Which type of interface connects SSD drives to the storage array controller?

Options:

A.

NVMe

B.

NVMe/IB

C.

NVMe-oF

D.

NVMe/TCP

Question 18

What is true about scale-out NAS storage architecture? (First Choose Correct option and give detailed explanation delltechnologies.com)

Options:

A.

Grows file system dynamically as nodes are added to the system

B.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers

C.

Provides fixed storage capacity that limits scalability

D.

Scales the capacity within a single NAS storage system

Question 19

Based on the exhibit, what does the “X” represent?

Options:

A.

NACK SYN

B.

ACK SYN

C.

SYN NACK

D.

SYN ACK

Question 20

How is NVMe used to connect a host to M.2 storage devices?

Options:

A.

through an embedded PCIe controller

B.

through a PCIe bus FC HBA card

C.

through a PCIe bus card

D.

through an embedded FC HBA controller

Question 21

What is a benefit of using an existing Ethernet network infrastructure for storage connectivity?

Options:

A.

Provides a dedicated network for storage

B.

Ensures security by allowing only localized data movement

C.

Ensures lossless transmission of FC traffic

D.

Reduces overall cost of the network infrastructure

Question 22

Which Connectrix FC switch model supports NVMe in a 32Gb/s SAN fabric exclusively?

Options:

A.

DS-6600B

B.

MDS 9148S

C.

DS-6505B

D.

MDS-9132T

Question 23

What is the function of a control plane in the SDDC?

Options:

A.

Performs financial operations used to calculate CAPEX

B.

Performs processing and Input output operations

C.

Performs administrative operations and for communicating messages

D.

Performs resource provisioning and provides the programming logic and policies

Question 24

An organization has two data centers separated by a distance of 1600 km. They want to replicate between these data centers for disaster recovery purposes. They are concerned that this will impact application response time.

Which solution will address this concern?

Options:

A.

Asynchronous remote replication

B.

Storage-based COFW snapshot replication

C.

Synchronous remote replication

D.

Storage-based ROW snapshot replication

Question 25

Match the object-based storage device (OSD) features with their descriptions.

Options:

Question 26

Which plane of the SDDC architecture provides a CLI and GUI for IT to administrator the infrastructure and to configure policies? (Choose Correct Answer from Associate - Information Storage and Management version 5 Manual from dellemc.com and give explanation)

Options:

A.

Data plane

B.

Service plane

C.

Control plane

D.

Management plane

Question 27

Which infrastructure building process allows organizations to repurpose existing infrastructure components and provides cost benefits?

Options:

A.

Public cloud

B.

Greenfield

C.

Greyfield

D.

Brownfield

Question 28

What is an accurate statement about data shredding?

Options:

A.

A process to encrypt data

B.

A process to decrypt data

C.

A process to delete data

D.

A process to reorganize data

Question 29

What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be supported with one VLAN tag field?

Options:

A.

4096

B.

8192

C.

1024

D.

2048

Question 30

What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

Options:

A.

Creates a different file system for each node in the cluster

B.

Stripes data across nodes with mirror or parity protection

C.

Supports only data replication for protecting data

D.

Pools node resources in a cluster to work as multiple NAS devices

Question 31

Under the PaaS model, which elements are managed by the consumer?

Options:

A.

Applications and Data

B.

OS and Runtime

C.

Middleware and Networking

D.

OS and Virtualization

Question 32

Match the functionality of a security goal with its description.

Options:

Question 33

What is a benefit of using the FCoE storage protocol?

Options:

A.

Fewer physical storage systems are required when using FC SAN and iSCSI enabled storage systems.

B.

Fewer physical storage systems are required when using FC SAN and FCoE enabled storage systems.

C.

Fewer physical Fibre Channel and Gigabit Ethernet switches are required

D.

Fewer physical host Ethernet network adapters are required when using CNA adapters.

Question 34

What is a benefit of migrating to a modern data center?

Options:

A.

Reduce public cloud application development complexity

B.

Reduce management complexity by deploying only unified and converged IT resources

C.

Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog

D.

Reduce administration complexity and application downtime to consistently meet SLAs

Question 35

Which option shows the correct sequence of steps to perform a data recovery operation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 36

Which intelligent storage system component performs replication and storage management functions?

Options:

A.

Solid state drive

B.

Controller

C.

Storage class memory

D.

Front-end ports

Question 37

What is a feature a hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a clustered compute system

B.

Isolates the VMS on a single compute system

C.

Provides a VMM that manages all VMS on a single compute system

D.

Isolates the physical resources of a single compute system

Question 38

What is the functionality of the application server in a Mobile Device Management?

Options:

A.

Perform administration and management of all unmanaged devices

B.

Authenticate the device that requests access

C.

Perform administration and management of all managed devices

D.

Authorize devices directed to the server

Question 39

A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?

Options:

A.

Intrusion-based

B.

Policy-based

C.

Anomaly- Based

D.

Signature-based

Question 40

Which technology allows automation of sensors and devices to share and process information?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Artificial Intelligence

D.

Deep Learning

Question 41

What is a benefit of using an existing IP-based network infrastructure for storage connectivity?

Options:

A.

Provide a dedicated network for storage

B.

Provide the ability to extend the network over long distances

C.

Ensure lossless transmission of FC traffic over Ethernet

D.

Ensure security by allowing only localized data movement

Question 42

What is the key advantage of cloning a VM?

Options:

A.

Improves the performance of existing VM and new VMs

B.

Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a VM

C.

Saves time when creating multiple identical copies of a VM

D.

Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address

Question 43

What occurs during a Shared Technology Vulnerability threat?

Options:

A.

An attacker gains access to an administrator's, user's or system account.

B.

An attacker avoids applications that are already approved by an IT organization.

C.

An attacker exploits the weaknesses of tools used to enable multi-tenancy.

D.

An attacker exhausts network bandwidth or CPU cycles.

Question 44

What is a purpose of the policy engine in a data archiving environment?

Options:

A.

Facilitates manual searching for archived data in archive storage

B.

Moves the appropriate data into archive storage automatically

C.

Automates the process of identifying the data to move from archive to primary storage

D.

Enables manual migration of older archived data between archive storage devices

Question 45

What is a function of a continuous data protection (CDP) appliance?

Options:

A.

Migrates deduplicated data from the source volume to the target volume during replication

B.

Manages both local and remote replications within and across data centers

C.

Stores all data that has changed from the time the replication session started

D.

Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies

Question 46

Which Dell EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution that provides inherent source-based deduplication?

Options:

A.

Data Domain

B.

SRDF

C.

TimeFinder

D.

Avamar

Question 47

Refer to the Exhibit:

What type of FC port connects each FCIP gateway to each FC SAN?

Options:

A.

VE_Port

B.

TE_Port

C.

E_Port

D.

EX Port

Question 48

An IT organization wants to deploy four FC switches for compute and storage system connectivity. To meet performance requirements, a maximum of one active ISL and redundant ISLs for their compute to storage traffic.

Which FC SAN topology should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Single switch

B.

Partial mesh

C.

Multi-switch

D.

Full mesh

Question 49

What is the lowest to highest order of I/O performance among these storage devices?

Options:

A.

SCM--> SSD --> DRAM--> SATA

B.

SATA--> SSD--> SCM --> DRAM

C.

SSD --> SCM--> SATA--> DRAM

D.

DRAM--> SCM--> SSD-> SATA

Question 50

What is true about scale-out NAS storage architecture?

Options:

A.

Grows file system dynamically as nodes are added to the system

B.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers

C.

Provides fixed storage capacity that limits scalability

D.

Scales the capacity within a single NAS storage system

Question 51

What information is available in a capacity planning report for storage infrastructure?

Options:

A.

number of units of storage available, used and the cost

B.

current and historic information about the utilization of storage, file systems, and ports

C.

equipment purchase dates, licenses, lease status, and maintenance records

D.

current and historical performance information about IT components and operations

Question 52

What is true about a software defined data center?

Options:

A.

IT resource components are virtualized except commodity hardware used to create resource pools

B.

Management operations are dependent of underlying hardware configuration

C.

Services listed in the service portal are updated automatically using orchestration tool

D.

Management functions are moved to an external software controller

Question 53

Why is it important for organizations to implement a multi-site remote replication solution?

Options:

A.

Ensure data protection is always available if there are any single site failures

B.

Provide consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures

C.

Perform synchronous replication with low network bandwidth

D.

Recover data to any point-in-time in the event of a remote site failure

Question 54

Which block storage device protocol achieves the optimal cost-effective balance between I/O performance and high storage capacity for midrange storage applications?

Options:

A.

SAS

B.

NVMe

C.

SATA

D.

SSD

Question 55

A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM, Monday through Friday. However, a failure of Port 2 occurs on a particular week as follows:

Monday = 10 AM to 12 PM Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM Thursday = 4 PM to 7 PM

Friday = 3 PM to 6 PM Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 2 in that week?

Options:

A.

70%

B.

71.6%

C.

78.3%

D.

80%

Question 56

An organization is planning to adopt pre-integrated systems to deploy compute, network, storage, and management functions as a single engineered solution.

Which approach should the organization adopt?

Options:

A.

Vendor ready solutions

B.

Service based approach

C.

DCaaS solution

D.

DIY approach

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Total 189 questions