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Free and Premium APICS CPIM-8.0 Dumps Questions Answers

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Total 552 questions

Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?

Options:

A.

Access of system logs to authorized staff

B.

Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files

C.

Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property

D.

Adoption of environmental controls in the server room

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Question 2

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for a business unit with a low relative market share in a high-growth market?

Options:

A.

Using excess cash generated to fund other business units

B.

Investing in the acquisition of competitors

C.

Investing in projects to maintain market share

D.

Designing product improvements to protect market share

Question 3

Which compensating control is the MOST effective to prevent fraud within an organization?

Options:

A.

Principle of least privilege

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Separation of privilege

D.

Pre-employment background checks

Question 4

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations.

B.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud.

C.

Most cloud services offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable.

D.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on the most cloud service offerings.

Question 5

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

Options:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

Question 6

The project manager for a new application development is building a test framework. It has been agreed that the framework will Include penetration testing; however, the project manager is keen to identify any flaws prior to the code being ready for execution. Which of the following techniques BEST supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

System vulnerability scans

B.

Database injection tests

C.

System reliability tests

D.

Static source code analysis

Question 7

A large retail organization will be creating new Application Programming Interfaces (API) as part of a customer-facing shopping solution. The solution will accept information from users both inside and outside of the organization. What is the safest software development practice the team can follow to protect the APIs against Structured Query Language Injection (SQLi) attacks?

Options:

A.

Strictly validate all inputs for safe characters.

B.

Grant database access using the principle of least authority.

C.

Escape special characters in input statements.

D.

Use prepared input statements.

Question 8

A disadvantage of a capacity-lagging strategy may be:

Options:

A.

lack of capacity to fully meet demand.

B.

risk of excess capacity if demand does not reach forecast.

C.

a high cost of inventories.

D.

planned capital investments occur earlier than needed.

Question 9

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

Question 10

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

Question 11

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by adapting a cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A structured risk management process

B.

A common set of security capabilities

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A common language and methodology

Question 12

The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?

Cost CategoryCost

Custom fees$125

Freight$700

Warehouse rent$200

Matenal cost$500

Options:

A.

$825

B.

$1,325

C.

$1,400

D.

$1,525

Question 13

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

Question 14

Which of the following statements characterizes a pull system In distribution management?

Options:

A.

Each warehouse makes its own replenishment decisions.

B.

It uses distribution requirements planning(DRP).

C.

It uses uniform performance measures.

D.

It uses fair-share allocation.

Question 15

A bank recently informed a customer that their account has been overdrawn after their latest transaction. This transaction was not authorized by the customer. Upon further investigation, it was determined by the security team that a hacker was able to manipulate the customer's pre-authenticated session and force a wire transfer of funds to a foreign bank account. Which type of attack MOST likely occurred?

Options:

A.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

B.

On-path attack

C.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D.

Session hijacking

Question 16

A security engineer is implementing a Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system.

What is the BEST action the engineer can take to ensure secure operations?

Options:

A.

Refer to the organization’s SCADA security standards and policies.

B.

Refer to the SCADA risk assessment and industry standards.

C.

Review the organizational Standard Operating Procedures (SOP).

D.

Conduct logging and monitoring of the system and apply need to know and least privileges.

Question 17

A manufacturing facility uses common wireless technologies to communicate. The head of security is concerned about eavesdropping by attackers outside the perimeter fence. The distance between the facility and fence is at least 300 feet (100 m). Which of the following wireless technologies is MOST likely to be available to an attacker outside the fence?

Options:

A.

ZigBee

B.

Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)

C.

Long-Term Evolution (LTE)

D.

Bluetooth

Question 18

An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

Options:

A.

Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning

B.

Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

C.

Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed

D.

Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application

Question 19

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

Options:

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

Question 20

Which of the following BEST characterizes the operational benefit of using immutable workloads when working on a cloud-based project?

Options:

A.

The clouds service provider is responsible for all security within the workload

B.

Security testing is managed after image creation

C.

No longer have to bring system down to patch

D.

Allows a user to enable remote logins to running workloads

Question 21

Risk pooling would work best for items with:

Options:

A.

low demand uncertainty and short lead times.

B.

low demand uncertainty and long lead times.

C.

high demand uncertainty and short lead times.

D.

high demand uncertainty and long lead times.

Question 22

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

Question 23

An information security professional is considering what type of classification label to place on an organization’s software code in order to implement proper access controls. The code is considered intellectual property data and would have a catastrophic impact to the organization if compromised or destroyed. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate classification label to apply?

Options:

A.

Sensitive

B.

Confidential

C.

Internal Use Only

D.

Public

Question 24

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

Question 25

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

Question 26

Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Product mix

B.

Aggregate volume

C.

Engineering change effectivity date

D.

Customer order quantities

Question 27

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

Options:

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

Question 28

A webmaster has repeatedly used the same certificate sign request to renew an organization's website Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate. What is the MOST significant increased risk for the organization?

Options:

A.

Logical access control against symmetric key

B.

Cryptanalysis against symmetric key

C.

Cryptanalysis against private key

D.

Logical access control against private key

Question 29

When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business requirements

B.

Compliance with legal requirements

C.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

D.

Compliance with international standards

Question 30

An example of an assignable cause of variation in process performance is:

Options:

A.

power fluctuation during machine operation.

B.

machine vibration during operation.

C.

incorrect setup of a machine by the operator.

D.

changes in temperature in the machine shop.

Question 31

Which of the following combines multiple software programming tools into one package?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Software development kit

C.

Dynamic Link Libraries (DLL)

D.

Program language compilers

Question 32

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

Question 33

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

Options:

A.

Simplex

B.

Unicast

C.

Half-duplex

D.

Full-duplex

Question 34

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

Question 35

Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?

Options:

A.

Application server, web server, and delegate

B.

Application server, proxy server, and delegate

C.

Delegator, delegate, and service provider

D.

Delegator, application server, and service provider

Question 36

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

A.

Enforces information security policies

B.

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

C.

Supports locating security components at end of life

D.

Enforces network security access controls

Question 37

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of black hat testing during an assessment?

Options:

A.

Assess systems without the knowledge of end-users.

B.

Focus on identifying vulnerabilities.

C.

Examine the damage or impact an adversary can cause.

D.

Determine the risk associated with unknown vulnerabilities.

Question 38

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in planned production that is greater than the total demand over the sales and operations planning (S&OP) horizon for a product family that is

made to stock?

Options:

A.

An increase in the customer service level is planned for the product family.

B.

New models are being added to the product family.

C.

Planned ending inventory for the product family is less than the beginning inventory.

D.

There is a long-term upward trend in demand for the product family.

Question 39

An organization has a call center that uses a Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system. The conversations are sensitive, and the organization is concerned about employees other than the call agents accessing these conversations. What is the MOST effective additional security measure to make?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the call agents are using an additional authentication method.

B.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

C.

Ensure that the voice media is using Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol.

D.

Segment the voice network and add Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW).

Question 40

Which of the following systems would be the most cost-efficient for inventory management of a low value item?

Options:

A.

Order point

B.

Material requirements planning (MRP)

C.

Periodic review

D.

Economic order quantity(EOQ)

Question 41

When assessing a new vendor as a possible business partner, what would BEST demonstrate that the vendor has a proactive approach to data security compliance?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides documented safeguards in handling confidential data.

B.

The vendor provides a copy of their externally performed risk assessment.

C.

The vendor has a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) in place before work begins.

D.

The vendor has a signed contract in place before work with data begins.

Question 42

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Requirements

C.

Maintenance

D.

Testing

Question 43

Employees at an organization use web based services provided by an affiliate. Which of the following risks is unique to this situation?

Options:

A.

Watering hole attack

B.

Man-In-Middle (MITM) attack

C.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack

D.

PowerShell attack

Question 44

A computer forensic analyst is examining suspected malware from a computer system post-attack. Upon reverse engineering the code, the analyst sees several concerning instructions. One of those concerning instructions is that it installs a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) rootkit, and when the system is then rebooted, the BIOS checks for a certain unknown program to be installed. Which security feature MOST likely would have detected and prevented this type of attack if already on the system?

Options:

A.

Operating System (OS) virtualization

B.

Memory protection

C.

Cryptographic module

D.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

Question 45

Which of the following security techniques can be used to ensure the integrity of software as well as determine who developed the software?

Options:

A.

Independent verification and validation

B.

Code signing

C.

Digital Rights Management (DRM)

D.

Software assessment

Question 46

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

Options:

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

Question 47

What is the main negative effect of changing the due dates of open orders?

Options:

A.

The schedule information becomes inaccurate.

B.

The customer service level decreases.

C.

It leads to "nervousness" in the schedule.

D.

The schedule does not support demand.

Question 48

An organization is preparing to deploy Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to its workforce. The primary concerns of the organization are cost and security. The organization realizes that their entire workforce has computers and smartphones. Which of the following is BEST suited to address the organization's concerns?

Options:

A.

Soft token

B.

Short Message Service (SMS)

C.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

D.

Hard token

Question 49

When designing a production cell, which of the following items would be the most important consideration?

Options:

A.

Theunit per hour requirement for the production cell to meet the sales forecast

B.

Theflow of materials into the cell and sequencing of operations to minimize total cycle time

C.

Theoutput rate for the first operation and move time after the last workstation

D.

Thetakt time requirement for each operator to meet the monthly production goals of the plant

Question 50

What document MOST likely states an organization’s values?

Options:

A.

Union labor agreement

B.

Information protection policy

C.

Code of conduct

D.

Management standards

Question 51

The project manager has updated the project steering committee that a security vulnerability was found after applying the system security baseline, and remediation has been completed to close the vulnerability. What is the BEST next step for the project?

Options:

A.

Update the security baseline and continue with the next project task.

B.

Proceed with the next project task to meet the project deadlines.

C.

Obtain approval from the project steering, committee to revise the system security baseline.

D.

Create a change request for the system baseline revision.

Question 52

A security engineer has determined the need to implement preventative controls into their Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) for added protection. Which preventative control provides the MOST security?

Options:

A.

Enabling software to enforce authorized network profiles

B.

Having an automated alerting capability when a problem is detected

C.

Third-party software to monitor configuration changes on the network

D.

Using a monitoring tool to capture all network activity

Question 53

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

Options:

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

Question 54

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

Question 55

A startup organization has been growing rapidly and is planning to open a new office on another continent. Until infrastructure for the new office can be built, the organization is setting up remote access to the existing network. Which of the following is the MOST important secure implementation to complete during the expansion?

Options:

A.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Cybersecurity training

C.

Password management software

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Question 56

An organization is working to secure its Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) system, Which monitors water supply to the city. What type of security should the organization ensure FIRST?

Options:

A.

Endpoint security

B.

Network security

C.

Cyber physical security

D.

Cloud security

Question 57

Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement to mitigate the risk of data breach in the event of a lost or stolen mobile device?

Options:

A.

Mobile application management

B.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy

C.

Network Access Control (NAC)

D.

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Question 58

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

Question 59

Which of the following BEST describes an individual modifying something the individual is not supposed to?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Tampering

C.

Spoofing

D.

Repudiation

Question 60

Objective security metrics tend to be easier to gather, easier to interpret, and easier to include in reports to management.

What is the BEST objective metric for the effectiveness of a security awareness training?

Options:

A.

The management’s attitude toward the training

B.

The number of times users comply with the training

C.

A change of helpdesk calls after the training

D.

The off-hand comments about the training

Question 61

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

Question 62

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

Options:

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

Question 63

In which cloud computing model is Identify And Access Management (IAM) the responsibility of a service provider?

Options:

A.

Software As A Service (SaaS).

B.

Platform As A Service (PaaS).

C.

Desktop As A Service (DaaS).

D.

Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS).

Question 64

Improvements in an Input/output control (I/O control) system will most likely lead to:

Options:

A.

flattened bills of material (BOMs).

B.

a change in operation sequencing.

C.

reduction in queue size and queue time.

D.

fewer engineering change notifications.

Question 65

Which of the following is the BEST reason to conduct a penetration test?

Options:

A.

To verify compliance with organizational patching policies.

B.

To document that all relevant patches have been installed.

C.

To identify technical vulnerabilities.

D.

To determine if weaknesses can be exploited.

Question 66

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA&M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 67

The production plan relates to a firm's financial planning because it is used to:

Options:

A.

calculate standard product costs.

B.

determine variable costs.

C.

project payroll costs.

D.

identify future cash needs.

Question 68

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

Options:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company's current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

Question 69

Which activity follows the discovery phase of vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability detection

B.

Vulnerability evaluation

C.

Vulnerability identification

D.

Vulnerability governance

Question 70

An organization is implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and needs a strategy to measure device trust for employee laptops. Which measurement strategy is BEST suited and why?

Options:

A.

Remote using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) due to better protection of the keys

B.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because low-level access software can be accessed

C.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

D.

Remote using a scanning device because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

E.

Local using Mobile Device Management (MDM) because of device policy enforcement

Question 71

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

Options:

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

Question 72

An information security auditor is creating an audit program to assess endpoint security controls for portable storage media movement. Which type of control will MOST likely be part of the program?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Device control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Network control

Question 73

Which of the following ports needs to be open for Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) to function properly?

Options:

A.

88

B.

389

C.

443

D.

3268

Question 74

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

Question 75

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

Options:

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

Question 76

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

Options:

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

Question 77

An organization has deployed an Identity And Access Management (IAM) tool and is expanding their information governance program. Which of the following would BEST be included in the governance for IAM?

Options:

A.

Employ password masking, obfuscation, and tokenization and automate account updates based on human resources reporting.

B.

Implementing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and account lookout controls.

C.

Create and enforce a strong password policy and implementing security awareness training for all users.

D.

Control physical access to the IAM system and implementing Data Loss Prevention (DPL) for credentials.

Question 78

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

Question 79

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in a full-scale disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

Sign off by the Chief Information Officer (CIO)

B.

Financial cost of the organization

C.

Business interruption

D.

Available Information Technology (IT) hardware

Question 80

Exhibit:

A company has prioritized customers A, B, and C, filling orders in that sequence. What are the impacts to customer service levels for customers B and C?

Options:

A.

100% service levels for B and C

B.

Customer B has higher service level

C.

Customer C has higher service level

D.

Customer B and C have same service level

Question 81

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

Options:

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

Question 82

Marketing has requested a significant change in the mix for a product family. The requested change falls between the demand and the planning time fences. The most appropriate action by the master scheduler is to:

Options:

A.

reject the request.

B.

accept the request.

C.

forward the request to senior management.

D.

check the availability of required material.

Question 83

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

Question 84

An organization wants to ensure a risk does not occur. The action taken is to eliminate the attack surface by uninstalling vulnerable software. Which risk response strategy did the organization take?

Options:

A.

Accepting risk

B.

Avoiding risk

C.

Mitigating risk

D.

Transferring risk

Question 85

An example of a flexibility metric for an organization Is:

Options:

A.

average batch size.

B.

scrap rate.

C.

percentageof orders delivered late.

D.

cycle time.

Question 86

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

Question 87

A team is tasked with developing new email encryption software. To ensure security, what will be the PRIMARY focus during the initial phase of development?

Options:

A.

Ensuring compliance with international data protection and privacy laws for email communication

B.

Implementing strong encryption algorithms to ensure the confidentiality of the emails

C.

Developing a robust user authentication system to prevent unauthorized access to the software

D.

Defining clear software requirements for security and identifying potential threats and risks to the software

Question 88

An organization is designing a new Disaster Recovery (DR) site. What is the BEST option to harden security of the site?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Natural disaster insurance

C.

Natural surveillance

D.

Territorial reinforcement

Question 89

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

Question 90

An OpenID Connect (OIDC) authorization server received two requests from a client. The server identifies the request as replay attack and rejects the request. Which of the following BEST describes these requests?

Options:

A.

One of the requests does not have a valid token issuer's identifier.

B.

The requests have the same 'auth_time' parameter.

C.

The requests have the same 'nonce' parameter.

D.

One of the requests does not have a valid audience token.

Question 91

After reviewing the output of a threat modelling workshop, the development manager decides not to implement the application features where issues were identified. What is the BEST description of how the threats from the workshop are being addressed?

Options:

A.

Eliminated

B.

Mitigated

C.

Transferred

D.

Accepted

Question 92

An organization received a notification from a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) provider that one of its products will no longer be supported. Using obsolescence progression stages, which of the following risk trigger points was activated in this case?

Options:

A.

End of Life (EOL)

B.

End of Maintenance

C.

End of Service Life (EOSL)

D.

End of Repair

Question 93

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

Question 94

Which of the following is the GREATEST threat for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) deployment on the internet?

Options:

A.

Ability to use weak hashing algorithms for peer authentication

B.

Ability to perform unauthenticated peering across autonomous systems

C.

Failure to validate legitimacy of received route advertisements

D.

Failure to encrypt route announcement across autonomous systems

Question 95

An executive is approved to travel to a high-risk country. What is the BEST action the organization can take to ensure the executive’s safety and security?

Options:

A.

Provide travel security training.

B.

Provide specific pre-travel intelligence briefing.

C.

Complete a travel risk assessment.

D.

Refresh the corporate travel policy.

Question 96

What General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) principle says that data should be collected lawfully and with the person’s consent?

Options:

A.

Legitimate data collection

B.

Limitation of use

C.

Collection Categorization

D.

Collection limitation

Question 97

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

Question 98

Which of the following production activity control (PAC) techniques focuses on optimizing output?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Priority sequencing rules

C.

Theory of constraints (TOC) scheduling

D.

Critical path management (CPM)

Question 99

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

Question 100

An advantage of applying ABC classification to a firm's replenishment items is that:

Options:

A.

it distinguishes independent demand from dependent demand.

B.

it allows planners to focus on critical products.

C.

it provides better order quantities than the economic order quantity (EOQ).

D.

it allows the firm to utilize time-phased order point (TPOP).

Question 101

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

Options:

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

Question 102

Business management should be engaged in the creation of Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery plans (DRP) because they need to

Options:

A.

Ensure that the technology chosen for implementation meets all of the requirements.

B.

Provide resources and support for the development and testing of the plan.

C.

Predetermine spending for development and implantation of the plan.

D.

Specify the solution and options around which the plans will be developed.

Question 103

A work center has 3 machines that are all run at the same time with a single worker. The work center has an efficiency of 75% and a utilization of 100%. What is the work center's capacity in standard hours for an 8-hour shift?

Options:

A.

6 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

18 hours

D.

24 hours

Question 104

Which of the following benefits typically will be realized when switching from a functional to a cellular layout?

Options:

A.

Equipment utilization will be higher.

B.

Quality inspections will be reduced.

C.

Capital expenditures will be reduced.

D.

Products will have faster throughput.

Question 105

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

Question 106

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

Options:

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

Question 107

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

Options:

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

Question 108

Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is applicable primarily In companies operating In an environment where:

Options:

A.

backlog is very low.

B.

the status of work orders is disregarded.

C.

lean principles are used.

D.

material requirements planning (MRP) is used.

Question 109

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

Options:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

Question 110

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

Options:

A.

1,818.2

B.

59.99945

C.

1.98

D.

0.99945

Question 111

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

Question 112

An support technician is contacted by an imposter claiming to be a supervisor and is asked specifically to perform a task that violates the organization’s security policies. What type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Spear phishing

C.

Piggybacking

D.

Insider threat

Question 113

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

Options:

A.

Head of human capital

B.

Head of compliance

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

Question 114

An audit report of security operations has listed some anomalies with third parties being granted access to the internal systems and data without any restrictions.

Which of the following will BEST help remediate this issue?

Options:

A.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored in a low-volume network or subnetwork location.

B.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored on a network that uses a unique platform.

C.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored in a high-volume network or subnetwork location.

D.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored on a network or on a subnetwork.

Question 115

What does the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) method define?

Options:

A.

What equipment is needed to perform

B.

How information is accessed within a system

C.

What actions the user can or cannot do

D.

How to apply the security labels in a system

Question 116

A department manager executes threat modeling at the beginning of a project and throughout its lifecycle. What type of threat modeling is being performed?

Options:

A.

Proactive threat modeling

B.

Reactive threat modeling

C.

Risk assessment

D.

Threat modeling assessment

Question 117

An organization decides to conduct penetration testing. Senior management is concerned about the potential loss of information through data exfiltration. The organization is currently preparing a major product launch that is time-sensitive. Which of the following methods of testing is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Gray box

B.

Green box

C.

Black box

D.

White box

Question 118

Given the bill of material (BOM) information below and independent requirements of 10 pieces (pcs) per week of Component A and 20 pieces (pcs) per week of Component B, what is the weekly gross requirement of component F?

Options:

A.

80

B.

120

C.

160

D.

200

Question 119

A planner has chosen to increase the order point for a raw material. Which of the following costs is most likely to increase?

Options:

A.

Carrying

B.

Ordering

C.

Landed

D.

Product

Question 120

An organization starts to develop a drone inspection and defect detection system includes different subsystems running at different clouds from different service providers. During the architectural design phase, which security architecture principle should be the MOST important for the security engineer to apply?

Options:

A.

Security by design

B.

Default deny

C.

Security by default

D.

Security before design

Question 121

A large organization wants to implement a vulnerability management system in its internal network. A security professional has been hired to set up a vulnerability scanner on premises and to execute the scans periodically. Which of the following should be the FIRST action performed by the security professional?

Options:

A.

Configure internal firewalls to accept and pass all scanner traffic and responses

B.

Execute a vulnerability scan to determine the current organization security posture

C.

Select two different vulnerability scanners to get comprehensive reporting

D.

Obtain support from the computing systems' stakeholders

Question 122

A software development vendor wants to test the Application Programming Interface (API). The testers use and manipulate data to identify the various states of the application behavior. What is the kind of testing that is being used?

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance (QA) testing

B.

Integration technique

C.

User Acceptance Testing

D.

Fuzzing technique

Question 123

A lengthy power outage led to unavailability of time critical services resulting in considerable losses. It was determined that a backup electrical generator did not work as intended at the time of the incident due to lack of fuel. What should the security consultant FIRST Investigate?

Options:

A.

Maintenance procedures

B.

Supplier contracts

C.

Failover designs

D.

Product catalogs

Question 124

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) allows for scanning a statistical sample of the environment without scanning the full environment. Scanning a statistical sample has many advantages and disadvantages.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate set of advantages and disadvantages?

Options:

A.

Limited risk to production targets, rapid scan times, requires proof of image standardization, and one-offs systems are not scanned

B.

Easy for auditors to question, fastest scanning method, ideal for cloud environments, and not suitable for small organizations

C.

Limited to a single environment/platform, proves image standardization, random selection misses end-to-end applications, and slower than targeted scanning

D.

Confirmation of Configuration Management (CM), hand selection introduces confirmation bias, is ideal in operational technology environments, and requires about 10% of each environment/platform

Question 125

Which of the following is typically used to control physical access to highly secure facilities?

Options:

A.

Surveillance

B.

Mantrap

C.

Dual control

D.

Door locks

Question 126

Which of the following statements is an assumption on which the economic order quantity (EOQ) model is based?

Options:

A.

Customer demand is known but seasonal.

B.

Items are purchased and/or produced continuously and not in batches.

C.

Order preparation costs and inventory-carrying costs are constant and known.

D.

Holding costs, as a percentage of the unit cost, are variable.

Question 127

A security analyst has been asked to build a data retention policy for a hospital. What is the FIRST action that needs to be performed in building this policy?

Options:

A.

Determine local requirements.

B.

Determine federal requirements.

C.

Ensure that all data has been classified.

D.

Designate a person of authority.

Question 128

In order for an organization to mature their data governance processes to ensure compliance, they have created a data classification matrix.

What are the next BEST activities to build on this completed work?

Options:

A.

Ensure the data owners agree with the classification of their data and then socialize the matrix with employees handling data.

B.

Ensure the internal legal team approves the data classification matrix then perform a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to understand the impact of applying the classifications.

C.

Complete a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) and use the results to identify improvements to the data classification matrix.

D.

Document the handling procedures for each classification of data in the matrix and schedule data handling educational sessions with employees.

Question 129

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

Question 130

A company assembles kits of hand tools after receipt of the order from distributors and uses two-level master scheduling. The appropriate levels of detail for the forecasts that are input to master scheduling would be total number of kits and:

Options:

A.

each unique tool.

B.

percentage of total for each tool.

C.

raw material requirements.

D.

specific kit configurations.

Question 131

A plant uses a level production strategy due to the high costs of hiring and letting go of skilled employees. The constrained resource is due to be upgraded in the fourth month of the planning horizon, and that will reduce capacity for that month by 17%.

Which of the following actions would be appropriate in this situation to maintain current levels of customer service and gross margin?

Options:

A.

Increase planned production for the next three periods.

B.

Defer the upgrade to a period beyond the planning time fence.

C.

Increase planned production from the fifth period on.

D.

Defer the upgrade to the period in which the highest stock level is planned.

Question 132

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

Options:

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

C.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

D.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

Question 133

Given the following data, calculate the appropriate takt time:

Options:

A.

0.25 minutes

B.

1 minute

C.

2 minutes

D.

4 minutes

Question 134

What is the BEST way to plan for power disruptions when implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Empty jugs which can easily be filled up with water.

B.

Stock up on generator fuel and execute a generator test.

C.

Request bids for inexpensive generators.

D.

Purchase a contract with a secondary power provider.

Question 135

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

Question 136

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

Options:

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

Question 137

For a company that uses first in, first out (FIFO) inventory accounting, the actual use in production of a recently arrived shipment of more expensive components rather than lower-cost components

previously received will have which of the following results?

Options:

A.

Higher cost of goods sold (COGS)

B.

Lower COGS

C.

No change to COGS

D.

A violation of FIFO rules

Question 138

To ensure the quality of its newly developed software, an organization is aiming to deploy an automated testing tool that validates the source code. What type of testing BEST supports this capability?

Options:

A.

Network vulnerability scanning

B.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

C.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

D.

Fuzz parsing

Question 139

What is the MOST likely cause for a penetration tester having difficulties finding the stack to inject code?

Options:

A.

Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)

B.

Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

C.

Structured exception handling overwrite protection

D.

Export address table filtering

Question 140

Remote sensors have been deployed at a utility site to reduce overall response times for maintenance staff supporting critical infrastructure. Wireless communications are used to communicate with the remote sensors, as it is the most cost-effective method and minimizes risk to public health and safety. The utility organization has deployed a Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) to monitor and protect the sensors. Which statement BEST describes the risk that is mitigated by utilizing this security tool?

Options:

A.

Malware on the sensor

B.

Denial-Of-Service (DoS)

C.

Wardriving attack

D.

Radio Frequency (RF) interference

Question 141

An organization co-locates three divisions and merges them into one network infrastructure. Prior to the merge, the network manager issued devices to employees for remote login. What security concept should be observed to provide security when a device joins the network or when a client makes an Application Programming Interface (API) call?

Options:

A.

Access Control List (ACL)

B.

Non-repudiation

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Zero Trust (ZT)

Question 142

Which of the following is the workflow of the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Creation, Assessment, Deletion

B.

Assessment, Creation, Deletion

C.

Provision, Review, Revocation

D.

Review, Provision, Revocation

Question 143

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

Question 144

Maintaining software asset security is MOST dependent on what information?

Options:

A.

Software licensing

B.

Asset ownership

C.

Inventory of software

D.

Classification level

Question 145

During an investigation, a forensic analyst executed a task to allow for the authentication of all documents, data, and objects collected, if required. Which of the options below BEST describes this task?

Options:

A.

Electronically stored information was collected through a forensic tool.

B.

Metadata was collected from files and objects were listed in a notebook.

C.

A chain of custody form was filled with all items quantity and descriptions.

D.

Archive tagging was applied to all digital data and physical papers were stamped.

Question 146

Which of the following concepts MOST accurately refers to an organization's ability to fully understand the health of the data in its system at every stage of the lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Data observability

B.

Data portability

C.

Data discovery

D.

Data analytics

Question 147

Which of the following is the MOST effective approach to reduce the threat of rogue devices being introduced to the internal network?

Options:

A.

Authorize connecting devices

B.

Authenticate connecting devices

C.

Disable unauthorized devices

D.

Scan connecting devices

Question 148

Components of an organization's Immediate industry and competitive environment Include:

Options:

A.

political factors.

B.

interest rates.

C.

substitute products.

D.

sociocultural forces.

Question 149

It takes an average of 3 hours to set up a model and 1 hour to run, but depending on the complexity of the models, the setup time can be significantly different. Last week. 2 modelers were working on different projects. Each worked 40 hours. One modeler finished 5 models a day, and the other finished 1 model a day. What was the demonstrated capacity last week?

Options:

A.

25models

B.

15models

C.

10models

D.

30models

Question 150

While conducting penetration testing, one of the testers noticed evidence of additional penetration activities not part of the test. Which of the following is the NEXT course of action for the lead penetration tester?

Options:

A.

Continue testing and report the event at the end of the day.

B.

Stop testing and monitor activity.

C.

Stop testing and report the event.

D.

Complete the test and report the event at the end of the test.

Question 151

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

Question 152

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

Question 153

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

Options:

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

Question 154

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Question 155

Which of the following BEST describes how an Application Programming Interface (API) gateway fits into an application architecture?

Options:

A.

An API gateway is a specialized reverse proxy that can make different APIs appear as if they are a single API.

B.

An API gateway inspects traffic and blocks many common attacks against Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) web services.

C.

An API gateway ensures that a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) attack cannot occur within the application.

D.

An API gateway monitors traffic within internal networks and ensures suspicious patterns are detected on any API.

Question 156

Once an organization has identified and properly classified their information and data assets, policies and procedures are created to establish requirements for the handling, protection, retention, and disposal of those assets. Which solution is the BEST method to enforce data usage policies, discover sensitive data, monitor the use of sensitive data, and ensure regulatory compliance and intellectual property protection?

Options:

A.

Application whitelisting

B.

Data governance

C.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

D.

Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

Question 157

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

Options:

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

Question 158

A large organization is planning to lay off half of its staff. From an information security point of view, what is the BEST way of approaching affected staff?

Options:

A.

Discuss the Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) with the affected staff before revoking access.

B.

Revoke the user certificates and add them to the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

C.

Revoke user access at the time of informing them.

D.

Ask human resources to conduct exit interviews before revoking access.

Question 159

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and is tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A.

An increase in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

B.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

Question 160

An organization wants to implement Zero Trust (ZT). The Information Technology (IT) department is already using Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and Identity and Access Management (IAM). Which of the following would be the BEST solution for the organization to implement in order to have a ZT network?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewall

B.

Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

Question 161

An attacker wants to decrypt a message and has no knowledge of what may have been in the original message. The attacker chooses to use an attack that will exhaust the keyspace in order to decrypt the message. What type of cryptanalytic attack is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Ciphertext only

B.

Chosen ciphertext

C.

Brute force

D.

Known plaintext

Question 162

In preparing for a facility location decision, proximity to suppliers would be classified as which kind of criteria?

Options:

A.

Service level requirements

B.

Future flexibility factors

C.

Access to transportation

D.

Cost factors

Question 163

According to best practice, at which step in the system lifecycle shall a security professional begin involvement?

Options:

A.

Project initiation and planning

B.

Functional requirements and definition

C.

System design specification

D.

Build and document

Question 164

What are the FIRST two steps an organization should conduct to classify its assets?

Options:

A.

Define user requirements and collate existing inventories

B.

Categorize assets and set minimum security controls

C.

Conduct an inventory of assets and determine the owners

D.

Obtain senior management buy-in and conduct a risk assessment

Question 165

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

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