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Total 468 questions

Fundamentals of Business Economics Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which TWO of the following policy actions might be available to a government that wishes to reduce a deficit in the balance of payments?

Options:

A.

Devaluate the exchange rate in order to increase exports.

B.

Increase the money supply in order to stimulate domestic consumption.

C.

Appreciate the exchange rate in order to reduce imports.

D.

Reduce the interest rate in order to stimulate investment.

E.

Introduce tariffs on imported goods in order to favour domestic producers.

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Question 2

Which of the following statements defines a diseconomy of scale?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the unit average cost caused by increasing the scale of production in the long run.

B.

An increase in the unit average cost caused by increasing the scale of production in the long run

C.

An increase in the unit average cost caused by decreasing the scale of production in the long run.

D.

A reduction in the unit average cost caused by decreasing the scale of production in the long run.

Question 3

The following table shows the profits of a business and an index of the general price level for 4 years

How does the level of real (inflation adjusted) profits in 20X4 compare to those of 20X1 ?

Options:

A.

+ $l8m

B.

+ $12.5m

C.

+ S3m

D.

+ $0-6m

Question 4

Futures are like forwards in that:

Options:

A.

futures are a binding contract.

B.

futures can be traded on future exchanges.

C.

futures are standandised contracts for standardised amounts.

D.

futures always cover the exact foreign currency exposure.

Question 5

Market price refers to:

Options:

A.

the price that is determined by demand and supply.

B.

the price that includes tax

C.

the value that is adjusted for inflation.

D.

the price that maximise profits.

Question 6

Which of the following types of graph uses cumulative frequency distributions to illustrate information?

Options:

A.

Bar chart

B.

Histogram

C.

Scatter graph

D.

Ogive

Question 7

industrial action is more likely to occur within a large organisation than a small organisation, due to senior management becoming re managers becoming complacent, as well as shop floor hostility. The effect of this will be an increasing average cost as production

The statement above is most closely describing an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

External diseconomy of scale.

B.

Internal diseconomy of scale

C.

Internal economy of scale

D.

External economy of scale

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of an indirect tax?

Options:

A.

Corporation tax

B.

Income tax

C.

Inheritance tax

D.

Sales tax

Question 9

A research business compiles the following data for Country D over 8 years:

* Household expenditure, y (in millions of constant 20X6 dollars);

* The number of fixed broadband internet subscribers, x (in thousands).

Based on this information the following regression model is developed:

y = 332668 * 45.8x - 0 003x2

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The model is based on historical data, so it is of little use in making forecasts

B.

1 percent increase in the number of fixed broadband internet subscribers will lead to 0 3 percent increase in household final consumption expenditure.

C.

A non-linear relationship is suggested by the model between household final consumption expenditure and the number of fixed broadband internet subscribers.

D.

The model makes accurate forecasts on household final consumption expenditure in Country and therefore it should be widely applied to most countries and regions.

Question 10

A business has a short-term problem with its payments exceeding its receipts. Which TWO of the following would be appropriate for meeting this financial shortfall?

Options:

A.

A bank overdraft

B.

A bill of exchange

C.

A mortgage

D.

Issuing shares

E.

A leasing arrangement

Question 11

Which THREE of the following are examples of supply-side policies?

Options:

A.

Increasing investment in vocational training for unemployed youth

B.

Providing tax incentives to firms investing in new technology

C.

Reducing the rate of value added tax applied to consumer goods

D.

Increasing current expenditure on a national medical service

E.

Introducing a funding scheme to support university research

F.

Applying a tariff on the import of foreign technology

Question 12

The following cash flows are for a capital project where the required rate of return is 8 percent

Calculate the NPV for the project. Give your answer to the nearest whole number

Options:

Question 13

Which THREE of the following are objectives of corporate governance?

Options:

A.

To ensure that managers have attractive compensation packages

B.

To implement clear career progression routes for employees

C.

To ensure that customers' needs are addressed

D.

To ensure that a company is run in a legal and ethical manner

E.

To implement incentives for managers to pursue long term financial sustainability

F.

To increase transparency in company reporting

Question 14

A government issues a security which promises to pay $100 per year indefinitely. What is it worth if the required rate of return is..

Options:

A.

$2, 400

B.

$1, 400

C.

$2, 500

D.

$4, 000

Question 15

Which of the following is a primary objective of a not-for-profit organisation?

Options:

A.

To satisfy the needs of a particular sector of society

B.

To maintain the growth of the organisation.

C.

To make a profit.

D.

To continue to exist.

Question 16

Atu, a new social media platform, has launched an advertising campaign directed at areas of Country X where there is a higher proportion of young people than elsewhere.

Which source is most likely to have been used by Atu to acquire this data?

Options:

A.

Demographic statistics published in a census

B.

The l{ addresses of computers in these areas

C.

The level of youth unemployment as recorded by the government

D.

The prominence of other brands focused on young people in the area

Question 17

Quantitative easing, the purchase of government or private securities by the central banks from investors, is an example of

Options:

A.

contractionary monetary policy.

B.

contractionary fiscal policy.

C.

expansionary fiscal policy.

D.

expansionary monetary policy.

Question 18

The economy of Country V is initially in equilibrium at a level of national income and employment denoted by Y, at price level denoted by P If there is an increase in aggregate demand, indicate on the graph below the new equilibrium point in the economy.

Options:

Question 19

West Morton Rail has calculated that the number of passengers travelling on their railway increases during school holidays, while the inverse is true for most other railways in the country.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for this unusual correlation?

Options:

A.

West Morton Rail is a heritage railway, meaning it will receive more passengers as rates of tourism increase during the school holidays

B.

West Morton Rail is situated in a town where there are very few schools

C.

West Morton Rail has a special discount for passengers using their service during the school holidays

D.

West Morton Rail receives less revenue than other railway services

Question 20

Which of the following is an example of fiscal policy?

Options:

A.

The central bank imposing controls on bank lending

B.

The removal of foreign exchange controls which restrict the transfer of currencies between countries

C.

The removal of regulations which restrict Sunday trading

D.

The creation of tax-exempt savings accounts to encourage savings

Question 21

Which THREE of the following businesses are more likely to fare belter during a recession?

Options:

A.

A construction company specialising in road infrastructure

B.

A producer of rice, a staple good

C.

A producer of automobiles, a durable good.

D.

A producer of security equipment, a counter-cyclical good

E.

A retailer specialising in fashion, a cyclical good.

F.

A construction company specialising in private residential accommodation

Question 22

A clothes retailer has estimated a linear trend equation including trend, seasonal and cyclical components to forecast its sales for the next four quarters Which of the following factors would generate actual sales figures that are likely to differ markedly from the forecast?

Options:

A.

A drop in sales due to emergency roadwork blocking access to the store

B.

A drop in sales due to the ongoing economic recession.

C.

An increase in sales due to the increasing popularity of their brand.

D.

An increase in sales before a major religious festival

Question 23

'The £ has risen against other currencies since August, defying forecasters who thought that the UK's widening trade deficit must cause the £'s exchange rate to fall.'

From the above information, it can be concluded that, since August

Options:

A.

UK exports have become less price competitive

B.

The UK inflation rate has increased

C.

UK interest rates must have increased

D.

The strengthening pound has improved the UK balance of payments on current account

Question 24

The graph shows house prices in Lingford, a large urban town in a prosperous region.

Which of the following would be the equilibrium price for houses in Lingford?

Options:

A.

£390,000

B.

£400,000

C.

£410,000

Question 25

A bottle of brandy costs £25 in Country X, including both unit tax and ad valorem tax. These taxes are applied throughout the production process.

Which of the following applies to this particular scenario? Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

The ad valorem tax acts as a sales tax

B.

Both taxes can be classed as multi-stage consumption taxes

C.

The unit tax is otherwise known as stamp duty

D.

The taxes levied on the brandy are charged in a similar way to sales tax in the United States

E.

The taxes levied on the brandy are proportional

Question 26

A railway franchise in north-eastern Messu Potami has recently changed hands, and is now being operated by the company IstClass. However, IstClass already operate the railway franchise in northwestern Messu

Potami.

Which of the following courses of action would be most appropriate for the government of Messu Potami to take?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Establish a regulatory body to prevent a regional monopoly

B.

Rerun the franchise bidding process if it found that IstClass are imposing additional price rises due to the regional monopoly

C.

Allow the regional monopoly to exist, increasing fare prices for passengers on trains in both north-western and north-eastern Messu Potami

D.

Impose a uniform sales tax on all railway tickets which would equalise prices across the country

E.

Immediately nationalise the railway network, ending all private franchises and thus any regional monopolies

Question 27

The Competition and Markets Authority is a regulatory body in the UK. In 2017, the CMA found the proposed merger of Heineken and Punch Pubs in breach of its competition laws. Heineken and Punch Pubs have agreed

to divest in pubs in areas where they are the two dominant pub companies.

Which of the following are ways in which consumers might directly benefit from this decision?

Select ALL that apply.

Options:

A.

Heineken/Punch Pubs will not be able to charge excessive prices for alcoholic beverages served at their pubs

B.

There will be a greater variety of pubs for consumers to choose from in certain areas

C.

Heineken will divest in a certain number of pubs where the merger would have created monopolies

D.

The companies' divestment of pubs in certain areas could lead to the closure of the majority of pubs in said area

E.

The CMA will use this decision as a precedent for others in the future

Question 28

A wireless phone manufacturer currently sells 2,000 units per quarter at a price of $400 The estimated price elasticity of demand is -2.5.

The manufacturer is considering an increase in the price to $440

What will this raise (+) or reduce (-) total revenue by? Give your answer in whole numbers.

Options:

Question 29

Which ONE of the following would make the market supply of a product price elastic?

Options:

A.

Suppliers are unable to store unsold product

B.

Firms can join the industry easily

C.

Demand is price elastic

D.

There is a shortage of resources to make the product

Question 30

Which of the following statements about public goods is correct?

Options:

A.

Public goods are defined as those goods provided by the state

B.

Public goods are examples of free goods

C.

Public goods are characterized by the free-rider problem

D.

The problem of scarcity does not affect the provision of public goods

Question 31

One of the features of an oligopoly market is that the pricing strategy of producers

Options:

A.

is conditioned by the expected reaction of rival producers

B.

tends to ignore expectations about consumer reactions

C.

is constrained by the absence of barriers to entry into the industry

D.

is largely determined by government competition rules

Question 32

Which of the following is likely to cause the demand curve of margarine to shift to the left?

Options:

A.

A fall in the price of margarine

B.

A fall in the cost of vegetable oils

C.

A successful advertising campaign by butter producers

D.

A fall in the price of bread

Question 33

If the price elasticity of supply for a good over a certain price range is 0.8, the increase in the quantity supplied of that good, following a 10% increase in its price, will be

Options:

A.

0.8%

B.

8.0%

C.

18%

D.

80%

Question 34

All of the following would tend to lead to an industry being dominated by a small number of firms except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

Significant economies of scale in production

B.

The existence of entry barriers to the industry

C.

High initial capital costs in production

D.

Extensive consumer knowledge of products and prices

Question 35

A market is in equilibrium. If the government imposes a minimum price above the equilibrium price, there will be:

Options:

A.

an extension in demand, a contraction in supply and a market shortage

B.

a decrease in demand, an extension in supply and a market surplus

C.

a contraction in demand, an increase in supply and a market surplus

D.

a contraction in demand, an extension in supply and market surplus

Question 36

In a market economy the market mechanism can achieve all the following except one. Which is the exception?

Options:

A.

Signaling changes in consumer tastes

B.

Causing supply to respond to changes in demand

C.

Eliminating excess supply and demand

D.

Ensuring a socially fair distribution of goods and services

Question 37

A rise in the demand for petrol by motorists is likely to follow a rise in the price of:

Options:

A.

Steel

B.

Second-hand cars

C.

Public transport

D.

Motor insurance

Question 38

Porter describes differentiation as a firm having a unique product or service that is valued by the customer. Which ONE of the following is NOT a factor in the higher prices and profits from differentiated products?

Options:

A.

Lower price elasticity of demand due to the product having few substitutes

B.

Price inelastic supply because differentiation acts as a barrier to entry against other firms

C.

Higher customer satisfaction making them willing to pay a higher price

D.

Higher costs of production and marketing necessitating the charging of a higher price

Question 39

In a supply and demand diagram, other things remaining the same, an increase in production costs will normally shift:

Options:

A.

The demand curve to the right

B.

The supply curve to the right

C.

The demand curve to the left

D.

The supply curve to the left

Question 40

All of the following will tend to increase the number of firms in any one industry except which one?

Options:

A.

Decreasing returns to scale

B.

High transport costs

C.

Low barriers to entry

D.

Product differentiation

Question 41

Which of the following are external stakeholders for an organization?

i. Shareholders

ii. Customers

iii. Government

iv. Trade Unions

v. Pressure groups

vi. Employees

Options:

A.

(i), (ii) and (iii) only

B.

(ii), (iii) and (iv) only

C.

(iii), (iv) and (v) only

D.

(i), (v) and (vi) only

Question 42

An example of forward vertical integration is

Options:

A.

The merger between Mercedes and Chrysler in the car industry

B.

A car manufacturer taking over an engine factory

C.

The Ford car company producing refrigerators

D.

A car manufacturer investing in a chain of car showrooms and dealers

Question 43

Oxfam is a charity established to provide aid to the poor. Which ONE of the following statements about Oxfam is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It is a private sector organization

B.

It pursues social goals

C.

It is a not-for-profit organization

D.

It is responsible to its shareholders

Question 44

Which global institution is concerned with co-coordinating economic policies and agreeing banking and financial regulations?

Options:

A.

The IMF

B.

The World Bank

C.

The World Trade Organization

D.

The G20

Question 45

The equilibrium level of national income in an economy is the level of income at which

Options:

A.

Full employment occurs

B.

There is zero inflation

C.

Total planned spending equals the supply of output available

D.

The government's budget and the balance of payments are both exactly balanced

Question 46

All of the following are regarded as objectives of profit seeking organizations except one. Which ONE is the exception?

Options:

A.

Raising shareholder wealth

B.

Long term growth in sales

C.

Meeting regulatory, accounting and reporting standards

D.

Maximizing profit

Question 47

Which of the following is not taken into account by the discount factor applied to future earnings when calculating shareholder value?

Options:

A.

Shareholders rate of time preference for money

B.

The amount of earnings that will be lost as taxation

C.

The amount of risk the investment is subject to

D.

The rate of inflation

Question 48

Which ONE of the following is NOT required in calculating the EPS of ABC plc?

Options:

A.

The market price of ABC's share

B.

The number of shares ABC has in issue

C.

The most recent earnings after interest and tax of ABC

D.

The dividend payment made to holders of preference shares

Question 49

Which ONE of the following is an External stakeholder in a state-owned energy provider?

Options:

A.

The industry regulator

B.

A firm selling equipment to the energy provider

C.

Customers of the energy provider

D.

The government

Question 50

Inflation is undesirable for all of the following reasons except which one?

Options:

A.

Inflation decreases the international competitiveness of the business sector.

B.

Inflation distorts the price system and the process of resource allocation.

C.

Inflation shifts wealth from debtors to creditors in an arbitrary fashion.

D.

Inflation makes business forecasting and planning more difficult.

Question 51

If a government adopted a fiscal policy of cutting its budget deficit, the aggregate demand and supply model shows that the result would be:

Options:

A.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right, a fall in output and employment and a rise in the price level

B.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left, a fall in output and employment and a fall in the price level

C.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left, a fall in output and employment and a rise in the price level

D.

a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right, a rise in output and employment and a rise in the price level

Question 52

Which global financial institution is responsible for providing stabilization funding to assist developed and developing countries with short term borrowing needs and needs for foreign currency?

Options:

A.

The IMF

B.

The World Bank

C.

The World Trade Organization

D.

The G20

Question 53

Which of the following best defines “aggregate supply”?

Options:

A.

The stock of output available for sale in an economy

B.

The full employment level of output of the economy

C.

The flow of goods and services produced by an economy during the year

D.

The level of prices at which output can be sold in an economy

Question 54

Which ONE of the following best explains the statement 'In not for profit organizations money is a constraint and not a goal'?

Options:

A.

Money be ignored because reaching the goals of the organization is all that matters

B.

There is no need for the organization to be efficient

C.

There is a trade off between financial and non-financial goals

D.

Money limits how far the organization can achieve its goals

Question 55

Which ONE of the following is regarded as a general characteristic of an organization?

Options:

A.

Controlled performance of its activities

B.

Social goals towards society

C.

Collective goals towards society

D.

Social arrangement of people

Question 56

When faced with a recession, the appropriate combination of policies for a government in order to generate a recovery is

Options:

A.

Tax cuts, reduced public expenditure and lower interest rates.

B.

Monetary expansion, increases in public expenditure and an appreciation of the exchange rate.

C.

Reduction of the fiscal deficit and increased money supply.

D.

Tax cuts, monetary expansion and a depreciation of the exchange rate.

Question 57

Select the best definition of the corporate governance of a company from the list below.

Options:

A.

The structure and functions of the Board of a firm

B.

The systems by which companies are directed and controlled

C.

The composition and duties of the management of a company

D.

The financial and non-financial performance of a company

Question 58

A financial intermediary takes the small deposits of millions of savers and uses them to buy an issue of government (treasury) bills and bonds.

Identify from the list below the principle this illustrates:

Options:

A.

Maturity transformation

B.

Aggregation

C.

Risk transformation

D.

Money transmission

Question 59

What is described by the following definition 'the total accumulated amount the state owes to lenders in its own country and internationally'?

Options:

A.

The national debt

B.

The fiscal deficit

C.

The balance of payments deficit

D.

The structural deficit

Question 60

Which of the following describes a 'spot rate' in foreign currency dealing?

Options:

A.

It is a short term rate that may change in the immediate future

B.

It is the price for a currency that is to be delivered immediately

C.

It is the exchange rate minus any commissions or transactions charges

D.

It is the exchange rate minus the inflation rate

Question 61

A country's currency depreciates (falls) on the foreign exchange market. All of the following would be the effects of this on businesses within the country except which one?

Options:

A.

Businesses would lose income from each export as their export prices would fall.

B.

Businesses would face higher costs as prices of imported goods rose.

C.

Businesses would more easily compete with imported substitutes for their products.

D.

Businesses could keep the foreign exchange price of their exports constant and expand their profit margins.

Question 62

Identify which of the following features does not distinguish redeemable debt apart from equity:

Options:

A.

It has a face value which shows its value at redemption

B.

It will pay a regular set sum of interest

C.

It will have a maturity date when it will mature

D.

It will never be traded on an investment market

Question 63

A government may try to reduce a balance of payments deficit on current account by using either expenditure-reducing policies or expenditure-switching policies.

Which of the following is an expenditure-reducing policy?

Options:

A.

Devaluation of the exchange rate

B.

Imposing tariffs and quotas on imports

C.

Export subsidies

D.

Higher income tax rates

Question 64

Which of the following statements about government debt is false?

Options:

A.

It is exclusively traded by the Central Bank

B.

Individuals can buy it from stock brokers

C.

Notes and coins in circulation make up a very small part of government debt

D.

It can be issued by Local as well as Central government

Question 65

Lending to member states that are experiencing serious balance of payments problems is the role of:

Options:

A.

The World Bank

B.

The International Monetary Fund

C.

The G8 Group

D.

The World Trade Organization

Question 66

Which of the following is not a source of long-term capital for a company?

Options:

A.

Retained profits

B.

Dividends

C.

Term loans

D.

Issuing corporate bonds

Question 67

If a firm reduces the price of its good from $10 to $8 and, as a result, sales rise from 20,000 per month to 22,000 per month, the price elasticity of demand for its good must be

Options:

A.

-1

B.

-0.5

C.

+0.5

D.

+1

Question 68

The central bank can increase liquidity in the banking system, by:

Options:

A.

selling government bonds and lowering interest rates

B.

selling government bonds and raising interest rates

C.

buying government bonds and raising interest rates

D.

buying government bonds and lowering interest rates

Question 69

The stock market fulfils all of the following functions except which one?

Options:

A.

A market for government bonds.

B.

A market for foreign exchange.

C.

A market for company shares.

D.

A market for short term loans.

Question 70

The International Monetary Fund uses the funds at its disposal to

Options:

A.

Assist national governments with a budget deficit

B.

Assist national governments to repay their National Debts

C.

Finance specific development projects in Third World countries

D.

Help member countries with temporary balance of payments deficits

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Total 468 questions